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A nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a newborn. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of sepsis?

A.

Acrocyanosis

B.

Hypertension

C.

Rust-stained urine

D.

Retractions

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale:

A. Acrocyanosis: This is a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet that is common in newborns during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth due to immature circulation. It is not a sign of sepsis.

B. Hypertension: Newborns with sepsis are more likely to present with hypotension due to systemic infection and poor perfusion. Hypertension is not typically associated with neonatal sepsis.

C. Rust-stained urine: This discoloration can occur in newborns from urate crystals in the first few days of life and is considered a normal finding, not an indicator of infection.

D. Retractions: Retractions indicate increased work of breathing and respiratory distress, which can occur in newborn sepsis due to systemic infection affecting respiratory function. This is a concerning finding that warrants prompt evaluation.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Ensure that each client has a living will on file prior to treatment: While advance directives are encouraged, clients have the right to choose whether to have one, and care cannot be delayed or denied if they do not.

B. Place copies of incident reports in clients' medical records: Incident reports are internal risk management tools and should not be placed in the medical record, as this could increase legal liability and compromise confidentiality.

C. Obtain personal professional liability insurance coverage: Having individual liability coverage provides additional protection beyond employer coverage, ensuring legal and financial support if malpractice claims arise.

D. Overestimate clients' acuity to prevent short staffing: Falsifying acuity levels is unethical and can result in disciplinary action or loss of license; staffing concerns should be addressed through proper administrative channels.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"E"}

Explanation

Rationale for Correct Choices:

  • Intravenous antibiotic: The client is exhibiting signs of postpartum endometritis, including fever, tachycardia, a boggy and tender uterus, and foul-smelling lochia. IV antibiotics are the standard treatment to rapidly address bacterial infection and prevent systemic complications.
  • Increase in daily fluid intake: Adequate hydration supports the client’s recovery by improving perfusion to the uterus, aiding in the clearance of infection, and preventing dehydration, especially if the client is febrile or breastfeeding.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices:

  • Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This intervention is used primarily for severe postpartum hemorrhage, which is not evident in this client. Vital signs and lochia amount do not indicate ongoing hemorrhage.
  • Kleihauer-Betke test: This test identifies fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is not relevant to postpartum infection management. The client’s presentation suggests infection rather than blood loss.
  • Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not a concern for a postpartum client. The client’s symptoms are consistent with infection rather than uterine contractions needing suppression.

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