A patient comes to the clinic for a herpes-zoster infection? (Select all that apply)
Amphotericin B
Acyclovir
An azole group
Tamiflu
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication and is not used to treat viral infections such as herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect because it does not target the herpes virus, which causes conditions like shingles.
Choice B reason:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat infections caused by the herpes virus, including herpes-zoster (shingles). It works by inhibiting viral replication, reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. This makes it the correct choice for treating herpes-zoster infection.
Choice C reason:
Azole antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, not viral infections like herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect as it does not relate to the treatment of the herpes virus.
Choice D reason:
Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, not herpes-zoster. While it targets a viral infection, it is specific to the influenza virus and not effective against the herpes virus. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is known to cause infusion reactions, including fever, chills, and rigors. These reactions are common and expected when administering this medication. Therefore, the statement that there is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason:
This choice is incorrect because infusions of Amphotericin B should not be administered rapidly. Rapid infusion can increase the risk of severe side effects and adverse reactions. The drug should be administered slowly to minimize these risks. Thus, this statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason:
Rotating the IV site frequently or using a larger vein, such as a central line, is a standard practice to reduce the risk of phlebitis, a common complication of Amphotericin B treatment. This statement is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice D reason:
Amphotericin B is indeed used for the treatment of systemic fungal infections. This statement is factually accurate and does not suggest any misunderstanding on the part of the nursing student. Therefore, it does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The onset of warfarin is delayed, meaning it takes longer to achieve a therapeutic effect. Warfarin requires several days to adjust to effective anticoagulation levels because it works by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors that are already present and active in the bloodstream. In contrast, heparin has an immediate anticoagulant effect when administered, which is crucial for patients with acute conditions like deep vein thrombosis.
Choice B reason:
Warfarin does not prevent platelet aggregation. Instead, it works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which are essential for blood coagulation. Platelet aggregation is primarily inhibited by antiplatelet drugs like aspirin or clopidogrel, not anticoagulants like warfarin.
Choice C reason:
Heparin does not necessarily have fewer adverse effects compared to warfarin. Both anticoagulants have their specific risks and side effects. Heparin is preferred in acute settings due to its rapid onset of action, but it can cause complications like heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which requires careful monitoring.
Choice D reason:
Heparin does not have a longer half-life than warfarin. In fact, heparin's half-life is relatively short, which is why it is often administered via continuous infusion or frequent subcutaneous injections. Warfarin has a longer half-life, but its delayed onset of action makes it less suitable for immediate anticoagulation needs.
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