A postoperative patient reports a new pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg, which feels warm to the touch. The nurse notifies the MD of the patient's change in condition. Which medication will the RN anticipate giving?
Aspirin
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Warfarin (Coumadin)
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication used to prevent blood clots in the arteries but is not the primary treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is likely in this scenario. The patient's symptoms suggest a possible DVT, which requires anticoagulation therapy.
Choice B reason:
Clopidogrel (Plavix) is another antiplatelet medication, similar to aspirin, and is not the primary treatment for DVT. It is more commonly used to prevent clotting in arterial diseases such as coronary artery disease but not for venous thromboembolism.
Choice C reason:
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used for the initial treatment of DVT. It is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation and allows the body to break down the existing clot. Given the patient's symptoms, enoxaparin is the appropriate medication to anticipate for managing DVT.
Choice D reason:
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term prevention of thromboembolism but is not typically used for initial DVT treatment due to its slow onset of action. Enoxaparin or other forms of heparin are preferred for immediate anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Lactulose is the medication of choice for treating elevated ammonia levels, commonly seen in hepatic encephalopathy associated with cirrhosis. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia from the intestines, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is then excreted. Administering lactulose helps in lowering blood ammonia levels and improving mental status in affected patients.
Choice B reason:
Polyethylene glycol (MiraLax) is a laxative used to treat constipation. It does not have any role in reducing ammonia levels or treating hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this patient's elevated ammonia condition.
Choice C reason:
0.9% NS (normal saline) is primarily used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte balance. While essential in managing cirrhotic patients with fluid imbalances, it does not address the elevated ammonia levels directly. Therefore, it is not the treatment of choice for this specific situation.
Choice D reason:
Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softener used to treat constipation. It does not have any effect on ammonia levels or the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. Thus, it is not appropriate for managing elevated ammonia in this patient.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Sucralfate does not primarily work by reducing acid production but rather by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. The statement "Sucralfate reduces acid production in the stomach" is incorrect. Sucralfate's main action is to adhere to the ulcer site and protect it, thus helping in the healing process. The student’s misunderstanding is that sucralfate reduces acid production, which is not the primary mechanism of action for this medication.
Choice B reason:
Sucralfate is known for having minimal systemic side effects because it works locally in the stomach rather than being absorbed into the bloodstream. The statement that sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects is correct, as sucralfate's action is mainly localized to the gastrointestinal tract, making systemic side effects uncommon.
Choice C reason:
Sucralfate should indeed be administered one hour before meals. This timing allows it to form a protective barrier on the stomach lining before food can stimulate acid production, which is crucial for its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcers. Therefore, the statement about its administration time is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
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