A nurse is doing her assessment on a client who suffered a crush injury with multiple fractures to his lower leg. The nurse notices the client has increasing edema to the affected leg since the last assessment. Also, the client also reports the last pain medication did not help them at all with their pain and they feel the pain is worsening. The increasing edema and unrelieved increasing pain are indications of which of the following complications from a crush injury?
Fat embolism syndrome
Malignant hyperthermia
Acute compartment syndrome
Myocardial embolus
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Fat embolism syndrome is a serious complication of fractures, particularly long bone fractures, and presents with symptoms such as respiratory distress, cerebral dysfunction, and petechial rash. However, it is not characterized by localized increasing edema and pain.
Choice B reason:
Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain anesthetic agents and is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and metabolic acidosis. It is not related to increasing edema and pain in the context of a crush injury.
Choice C reason:
Acute compartment syndrome is characterized by increasing pain that is not relieved by analgesics and increasing edema due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments. This condition requires immediate medical intervention to prevent permanent damage.
Choice D reason:
A myocardial embolus would present with symptoms related to cardiac function, such as chest pain and shortness of breath. It is not related to localized increasing edema and pain in the lower extremities following a crush injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Preparing to take the client for a STAT CT of the head is crucial to quickly diagnose a possible stroke. Rapid imaging is essential to determine the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic), guiding appropriate treatment and improving outcomes. This immediate action is key in stroke management.
Choice B reason:
Administering rtPA is an appropriate intervention for an ischemic stroke but only after confirmation through imaging. Without imaging, there is a risk of worsening a potential hemorrhagic stroke. Hence, it is not the initial priority before confirming the diagnosis.
Choice C reason:
Notifying a speech pathologist for an emergency consult is relevant for assessing and managing speech and swallowing issues but is not the immediate priority. The primary focus should be on diagnosing and addressing the cause of the acute symptoms.
Choice D reason:
Discussing precipitating factors that caused the symptoms can be part of the assessment but is not the priority in the acute phase. Immediate imaging and medical intervention take precedence to mitigate the effects of a potential stroke.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Esophageal reflux, or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), can lead to Barrett's esophagus if left untreated. Chronic acid exposure from GERD causes changes in the esophageal lining, increasing the risk of developing Barrett's esophagus, a precancerous condition requiring monitoring and management.
Choice B reason:
Eating hot and spicy food may exacerbate symptoms of GERD but is not a direct cause of Barrett's esophagus. It can irritate the esophageal lining temporarily but does not lead to the cellular changes associated with Barrett's esophagus.
Choice C reason:
Frequent episodes of vomiting can damage the esophagus and lead to other complications but are not specifically linked to the development of Barrett's esophagus. The primary cause is chronic acid reflux rather than mechanical or chemical irritation from vomiting.
Choice D reason:
Esophageal polyps are growths that can occur in the esophagus but are not related to Barrett's esophagus. Barrett's esophagus results from prolonged acid exposure and cellular changes, whereas polyps are distinct growths that may require different monitoring and management strategies.
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