A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 4 (0.8 to 1.1). Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Vitamin K.
Protamine.
Calcium gluconate.
Epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is much thinner than the therapeutic range for most conditions (usually 2.0-3.0 for warfarin). This significantly increases the risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin because it is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) in the liver. Administering vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, reducing the risk of hemorrhage by promoting the production of functional clotting proteins.
Choice B rationale
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. It works by forming a stable ion pair with heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. It has no effect on the anticoagulant properties of warfarin, which acts by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase, an enzyme crucial for the regeneration of active vitamin K necessary for clotting factor synthesis. Therefore, protamine is not indicated for warfarin overdose.
Choice C rationale
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypocalcemia and magnesium toxicity. Calcium plays a vital role in numerous physiological processes, including bone health and muscle function, and is essential for blood coagulation. However, it does not directly counteract the effects of warfarin, which targets vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and is not the appropriate antidote for an elevated INR.
Choice D rationale
Epinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator used in anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma. It acts on alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and bronchodilation. It has no role in reversing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and is not indicated for managing an elevated INR.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause ototoxicity, particularly with rapid IV administration or high doses. This adverse effect manifests as tinnitus, vertigo, or irreversible hearing loss due to its impact on the hair cells in the organ of Corti within the inner ear. Therefore, reporting any indications of hearing loss is crucial for client safety.
Choice B rationale
Taking the daily dose of furosemide at bedtime is generally not recommended. Furosemide has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action, typically leading to increased urine production for several hours. Administering it at bedtime can disrupt sleep patterns due to frequent nocturia, making morning administration preferable to minimize nocturnal diuresis.
Choice C rationale
Daily weight monitoring is essential for clients taking furosemide for heart failure. Furosemide promotes diuresis, reducing fluid overload. Daily weight checks (normal variations are within 0.5-1 kg/day) allow for assessment of fluid balance and the effectiveness of the diuretic therapy, helping to identify both fluid excess and dehydration promptly.
Choice D rationale
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it promotes the excretion of potassium from the body. Chronic use can lead to hypokalemia (normal range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L), which can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. Consuming foods high in potassium regularly helps mitigate this electrolyte imbalance and maintain physiological function.
Choice E rationale
Furosemide can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing. This occurs due to fluid volume depletion and vasodilation induced by the diuretic effect. Rising slowly from a sitting or lying position allows the cardiovascular system to compensate, reducing the risk of dizziness, syncope, and falls.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat osteoporosis. It is known to be highly irritating to the esophageal mucosa, and if it lodges in the esophagus, it can cause severe esophagitis, ulceration, or erosion. Assessing the client's ability to swallow ensures safe passage of the medication and minimizes the risk of esophageal injury, highlighting a critical safety measure.
Choice B rationale
Alendronate should not be administered before bed. For optimal absorption and to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation, alendronate must be taken in the morning upon waking, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication. Taking it before bed increases the likelihood of the pill lingering in the esophagus, leading to irritation and potential injury.
Choice C rationale
Alendronate should not be administered with orange juice. The absorption of alendronate is significantly impaired by food, beverages other than plain water, and certain minerals like calcium. Orange juice contains calcium and can decrease the bioavailability of the medication, thereby reducing its therapeutic effectiveness. It must be taken with plain water only.
Choice D rationale
Informing the client to remain supine after taking the medication is incorrect. To facilitate rapid transit to the stomach and minimize esophageal contact, clients must remain upright (sitting or standing) for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate, and until after their first food of the day. Lying down increases the risk of esophageal reflux and irritation.
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