A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin and gentamicin sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult first regarding medication compatibility?
Health care provider
Hospital pharmacist
Nurse manager
Medication sales representative
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Health care provider: While health care providers, such as doctors, have extensive knowledge about medications and their uses, they may not always have the most up-to-date information on specific drug compatibilities. Pharmacists specialize in medications and are more likely to have immediate access to detailed compatibility data.
Choice B reason:
Hospital pharmacist: Pharmacists are the primary resource for information on drug compatibility. They have access to comprehensive databases and resources that provide detailed information on drug interactions and compatibility. Consulting the hospital pharmacist ensures that the nurse receives accurate and current information regarding the safe administration of ampicillin and gentamicin sulfate.
Choice C reason:
Nurse manager: Nurse managers oversee nursing staff and ensure that patient care standards are met. While they have a broad knowledge of clinical practices, they may not have the specific expertise or resources to provide detailed information on drug compatibility.
Choice D reason:
Medication sales representative: Medication sales representatives are knowledgeable about the products they promote, but their primary role is to market medications. They may not have the comprehensive and unbiased information needed to determine drug compatibility. It is always best to consult a pharmacist for this type of information.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Painful urination
Painful urination, or dysuria, is not a typical symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH primarily affects the flow of urine due to the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can obstruct the urethra. While BPH can cause discomfort, it does not usually result in painful urination. Painful urination is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) or other conditions affecting the urinary tract.
Choice B reason: Urge incontinence
Urge incontinence, characterized by a sudden and intense urge to urinate followed by involuntary loss of urine, can occur in some cases of BPH but is not the most common symptom. BPH typically causes symptoms related to urinary obstruction, such as difficulty starting urination, weak urine stream, and incomplete bladder emptying. Urge incontinence may develop if the bladder becomes overactive due to the obstruction, but it is not a primary symptom.
Choice C reason: Critically elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level
While an elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level can be associated with BPH, it is not a definitive finding. PSA levels can be elevated due to various conditions, including prostate cancer, prostatitis, and BPH. However, a critically elevated PSA level is more concerning for prostate cancer rather than BPH. Therefore, while PSA testing is useful in the evaluation of prostate conditions, it is not specific to BPH.
Choice D reason: Difficulty starting the flow of urine
Difficulty starting the flow of urine, also known as hesitancy, is a hallmark symptom of BPH. The enlarged prostate gland can compress the urethra, making it difficult for urine to pass through. This can lead to a weak urine stream, straining to urinate, and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. These symptoms are collectively known as lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) and are commonly associated with BPH.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A Client Who Has a Small Circular Partial-Thickness Burn of the Left Calf
A small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf is considered a minor injury in the context of a mass casualty event. This type of injury does not pose an immediate threat to life and can be managed after more critical cases are addressed. In mass casualty triage, patients with minor injuries are often categorized as “green” or “minimal” and are treated last.
Choice B reason: A Client Who Has Severe Respiratory Stridor and a Deviated Trachea
A client with severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea should be assessed first. These symptoms indicate a potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. In mass casualty triage, patients with compromised airways are given the highest priority and are categorized as “red” or “immediate” because their condition is critical and requires urgent medical attention.
Choice C reason: A Client Who Has a Splinted Open Fracture of the Left Medial Malleolus
A splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus is a serious injury but not immediately life-threatening if properly splinted. This client would be categorized as “yellow” or “delayed” in mass casualty triage, meaning they require medical attention but can wait until more critical patients are stabilized.
Choice D reason: A Client Who Has a Massive Head Injury and Is Experiencing Seizures
A client with a massive head injury and experiencing seizures is in a critical condition. However, in the context of mass casualty triage, the immediate priority is to secure the airway, breathing, and circulation. While this client is in dire need of medical attention, the presence of severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea in another client takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life.
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