A nurse is preparing to administer carbamazepine suspension 150 mg via NG tube every 6 hr. The amount available is 100 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer with each dose?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["7.5"]
To calculate the amount of carbamazepine suspension needed for each dose, you can use the following formula: (Dose required in mg / Concentration available in mg/mL) = Volume to administer in mL In this case: (150 mg / 100 mg/5 mL) = Volume to administer in mL (150 mg / 20 mg/mL) = 7.5 mL Therefore, the nurse should administer 7.5 mL of carbamazepine suspension via the NG tube for each dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This is the correct answer. Older adults often experience decreased kidney function as a normal part of aging. Medications that are excreted primarily by the kidneys may require dosage adjustments to prevent potential toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Increased liver function is not a typical physiological change in older adults. Liver function tends to decrease with age, which can affect the metabolism and clearance of certain medications.
Choice C rationale:
Increased metabolism is not a common physiological change in older adults. Metabolic rate tends to decrease with age, which can affect the metabolism of drugs.
Choice D rationale:
While pulmonary function may decrease with age, it is not the primary physiological change to consider when administering medications to older adults. Kidney function is a more critical factor in medication dosing for this population.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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