A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol via continuous IV infusion to a client.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an expected outcome of this medication therapy?
Improved urinary output.
Resolution of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Decreased brain natriuretic peptide levels.
Increased intraocular pressure.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate, thereby inhibiting water reabsorption in the renal tubules. This osmotic effect leads to increased water excretion and subsequently an improved urinary output. This enhanced diuresis is a primary therapeutic goal, particularly in conditions like cerebral edema or acute renal failure.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not indicated for the resolution of diabetic ketoacidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a metabolic emergency characterized by hyperglycemia, ketonemia, and acidosis, requiring insulin therapy, fluid resuscitation, and electrolyte management. Mannitol does not address the underlying pathophysiology of insulin deficiency.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol's mechanism of action does not directly decrease brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels. BNP is a hormone released by cardiomyocytes in response to ventricular stretch and is a marker of heart failure. While mannitol can reduce fluid overload, which might indirectly impact cardiac preload, its direct effect is not on BNP secretion.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol is used to decrease, not increase, intraocular pressure. Its osmotic properties draw fluid from the extravascular space, including the vitreous humor of the eye, into the vascular compartment. This reduction in fluid volume within the eye lowers intraocular pressure, making it useful in treating acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause ototoxicity, particularly with rapid IV administration or high doses. This adverse effect manifests as tinnitus, vertigo, or irreversible hearing loss due to its impact on the hair cells in the organ of Corti within the inner ear. Therefore, reporting any indications of hearing loss is crucial for client safety.
Choice B rationale
Taking the daily dose of furosemide at bedtime is generally not recommended. Furosemide has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action, typically leading to increased urine production for several hours. Administering it at bedtime can disrupt sleep patterns due to frequent nocturia, making morning administration preferable to minimize nocturnal diuresis.
Choice C rationale
Daily weight monitoring is essential for clients taking furosemide for heart failure. Furosemide promotes diuresis, reducing fluid overload. Daily weight checks (normal variations are within 0.5-1 kg/day) allow for assessment of fluid balance and the effectiveness of the diuretic therapy, helping to identify both fluid excess and dehydration promptly.
Choice D rationale
Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it promotes the excretion of potassium from the body. Chronic use can lead to hypokalemia (normal range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L), which can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. Consuming foods high in potassium regularly helps mitigate this electrolyte imbalance and maintain physiological function.
Choice E rationale
Furosemide can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing. This occurs due to fluid volume depletion and vasodilation induced by the diuretic effect. Rising slowly from a sitting or lying position allows the cardiovascular system to compensate, reducing the risk of dizziness, syncope, and falls.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering half the dose now and the other half in 30 minutes is an inappropriate action for a beta-blocker like atenolol when the heart rate is already low. This approach would still lead to a further reduction in heart rate, potentially causing symptomatic bradycardia or other adverse cardiovascular events, and is not a standard medication administration protocol.
Choice B rationale
Atenolol is a beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and blood pressure. A normal apical heart rate typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats/min. A heart rate of 61/min, although within the normal range, is on the lower end, especially for a client receiving a beta-blocker. Administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, leading to symptomatic bradycardia or other adverse effects. Therefore, withholding the medication and contacting the provider is the safest action to assess the client's tolerance and determine if a dose adjustment is necessary.
Choice C rationale
Administering the prescribed dose when the client's apical heart rate is 61/min is generally contraindicated for a beta-blocker like atenolol. Beta-blockers work by decreasing heart rate. Giving the medication could cause the heart rate to fall below acceptable limits (e.g., less than 60 beats/min), potentially leading to dizziness, syncope, or cardiac arrest, necessitating careful clinical judgment.
Choice D rationale
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats/min) by blocking the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors, thereby increasing heart rate. While atropine can be used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, preparing to administer it *before* giving atenolol, especially when the heart rate is 61/min and the client is not yet bradycardic, is premature and not indicated.
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