A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Morphine 2 mg IV
Amitriptyline 25 mg PO
Ketorolac 15 mg IV
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO
The Correct Answer is C
A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.
B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.
C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.
D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ask another nurse to check the medication dosage prior to administration: While double-checking medication dosages with another nurse can be a part of the medication safety process, it primarily ensures the right dose rather than confirming the right medication. This action focuses on the right dose rather than the right medication.
B) Use two client identifiers prior to administering the medication: This action aligns with the principles of medication safety and the "five rights" of medication administration, which include the right patient. Using at least two client identifiers, such as name and date of birth, helps ensure that the medication is being administered to the correct patient, which is essential for preventing errors related to patient misidentification.
C) Document the full name of the prescribed medication after administration: While accurate documentation is important for maintaining a complete record of medication administration, documenting the full name of the medication after administration does not directly ensure that the right medication was administered beforehand. It is a step in the documentation process but does not specifically address the verification of the medication before administration.
D) Verify a written order with the medication administration record: Verifying a written order with the medication administration record helps ensure that the correct medication is being administered as prescribed by the healthcare provider. However, this action focuses on confirming the accuracy of the prescription rather than confirming the right medication immediately before administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) "You should not feel anything more than a minor sting from the injection."
While this statement aims to reassure the client about the pain associated with the injection, it does not address the client's fear of needles or provide an alternative solution for medication administration. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate response in this situation.
B) "You must take this medication because there is no other option to treat this infection."
This response may increase the client's anxiety and resistance to receiving the medication. It fails to acknowledge the client's fear and does not offer a supportive approach to addressing the refusal. Additionally, there may be alternative treatment options available, making this statement inaccurate and potentially alarming for the client.
C) "Refusing the injection means you will not get better."
This response is confrontational and may further escalate the client's anxiety and resistance. It does not acknowledge or address the client's fear of needles, nor does it provide an alternative solution for medication administration. Using fear as a tactic to coerce the client into accepting the injection is not therapeutic and undermines the nurse-client relationship.
D) "I will discuss other treatment options with your provider."
This response acknowledges the client's fear and refusal of the injection while also demonstrating a commitment to finding alternative solutions for medication administration. By involving the healthcare provider in the discussion, the nurse can explore alternative treatment options that do not involve injections, such as oral medications or topical treatments. This approach respects the client's autonomy and promotes collaboration in decision-making, leading to a more positive and effective outcome for the client's care. Therefore, this is the most appropriate response in this situation.
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