A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Morphine 2 mg IV
Amitriptyline 25 mg PO
Ketorolac 15 mg IV
Acetaminophen 650 mg PO
The Correct Answer is C
A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.
B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.
C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.
D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) "Call 911 if pain persists 30 minutes after taking one tablet": This instruction is not accurate and could potentially delay appropriate medical intervention for angina. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are rapid-acting vasodilators used to relieve acute angina symptoms. If chest pain persists after taking one tablet, the client should take another tablet after 5 minutes. If the pain persists after a total of three tablets, the client should seek emergency medical assistance.
B) "Place the tablet under the tongue until dissolved": This instruction is correct. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve completely. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, providing quick relief of angina symptoms.
C) "Store the tablets in a refrigerator in a plastic container": This instruction is incorrect. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature, away from moisture and heat. Storing them in the refrigerator could alter their effectiveness.
D) "Take a tablet every 10 minutes until the pain subsides": This instruction is incorrect and potentially dangerous. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be taken as directed by the healthcare provider or based on the client's angina management plan. Typically, the client should take one tablet at the onset of angina symptoms and repeat the dose every 5 minutes if the pain persists, up to a maximum of three tablets within 15 minutes. Taking a tablet every 10 minutes without regard to symptom relief or maximum dosage limits could lead to hypotension and other adverse effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Monitor the client for seizure activity: While diazepam is an anticonvulsant medication and may be used to prevent or treat seizures, it is unlikely to cause seizure activity as an adverse reaction when administered for moderate sedation. However, if the client has a history of seizures or is at risk for seizures, monitoring for seizure activity is essential. In the context of moderate sedation, the primary concern is related to the sedative effects of diazepam rather than seizure activity.
B) Check the client's urinary output: Monitoring urinary out’ut is important for assessing renal function and fluid balance, but it is not directly related to assessing adverse reactions to diazepam. Adverse reactions to diazepam typically involve central nervous system depression, respiratory depression, or cardiovascular effects. Monitoring urinary output may be part of routine nursing care but is not specific to assessing adverse reactions to diazepam.
C) Monitor the client's oxygen saturation: This is the correct’action. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation is essential for det’cting adverse reactions to diazepam, such as respiratory depression or hypoventilation. Diazepam can cause respiratory depression, especially when administered in higher doses or in combination with other sedative medications. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows the nurse to detect any signs of hypoxemia early and intervene promptly to ensure adequate oxygenation.
D) Auscultate the client's bowel sounds: While assessing bowel so’nds is important for evaluating gastrointestinal function, it is not directly related to assessing adverse reactions to diazepam. Adverse reactions to diazepam typically involve effects on the central nervous system and respiratory system rather than gastrointestinal function. Monitoring bowel sounds may be part of routine nursing assessment but is not specific to assessing adverse reactions to diazepam.
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