A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Morphine 2 mg IV

Amitriptyline 25 mg PO

Ketorolac 15 mg IV

Acetaminophen 650 mg PO

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.

B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.

C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.

D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Hematuria: Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Instead, it may indicate other conditions such as urinary tract infection, kidney stones, or trauma to the urinary tract. While allergic reactions can affect the urinary system, hematuria is not a common manifestation.

B) Pruritus: Pruritus, or itching, is a classic symptom of an allergic reaction to medications, including antibiotics like cefaclor. Itching may occur on the skin or mucous membranes and can range from mild to severe. It is often accompanied by other allergic symptoms such as rash, hives, or swelling. Therefore, the presence of pruritus should alert the nurse to a potential allergic reaction to cefaclor.

C) Slurred speech: Slurred speech is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. It is more commonly associated with neurological conditions, intoxication, stroke, or side effects of certain medications, rather than an allergic response to antibiotics.

D) Tremor: Tremor, or involuntary shaking, is not a characteristic sign of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Tremors can have various causes, including neurological disorders, medication side effects, or metabolic abnormalities. While tremors can occur in severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), they are not among the primary symptoms.

A. Notify the nurse manager about the incident. B. Prepare and file an incident report. C. Notify the provider of the medication administration. D. Examine the client's vital signs and condition.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Notify the nurse manager about the incident: While it's important to report medication errors,’the immediate concern should be the client's well-being. Notifying the nurse manage’ can be done after addressing the client's condition.

B) Prepare and file an inc’dent report: Filing an incident report is necessary to document the error, but it should not be the first action taken. Ensuring the client's safety and well-being is the priority.’
C) Notify the provider of the medication administration: While it's important for the provider to be infor’ed of medication errors, the immediate concern should be assessing the client's response to the medication.

D) Examin’ the client's vital signs and condition: This is the’correct answer. The nurse's first action should be to assess the client's vital signs and condition to determine’any adverse effects of the medication. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can cause harm if administered when the heart rate is already low. Monitoring the client closely for signs of bradycardia or other adverse effects is essential.

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A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for cefaclor. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of an allergic reaction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record and f’nds digoxin was administered to the client with a heart rate of 58/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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