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A nurse is preparing to administer Ringer lactate 500 mL intravenous (IV) bolus to infuse over 3 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 2 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["56"]

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total time in minutes:

3 hours 60 minutes/hour = 180 minutes

Then, calculate the volume per minute:

500 mL / 180 minutes = 2.78 mL/min

Finally, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

2.78 mL/min 20 gtt/mL = 55.6 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 56 gtt/min.

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Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total time in minutes:

3 hours 60 minutes/hour = 180 minutes

Then, calculate the volume per minute:

500 mL / 180 minutes = 2.78 mL/min

Finally, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

2.78 mL/min 20 gtt/mL = 55.6 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 56 gtt/min.

A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse B. Postmenopausal bleeding C. Decreased white blood cell count D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has just received the diagnosis of endometrial cancer. During the nursing assessment, which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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