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A nurse is preparing to administer Ringer lactate 500 mL intravenous (IV) bolus to infuse over 3 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 2 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["56"]

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min))  Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total time in minutes:

  • 3 hours  60 minutes/hour = 180 minutes

Then, calculate the volume per minute:

  • 500 mL / 180 minutes = 2.78 mL/min

Finally, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

  • 2.78 mL/min  20 gtt/mL = 55.6 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 56 gtt/min.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Ensure the client's intake is greater than their output: This is incorrect. In continuous bladder irrigation, the output may exceed the intake because the irrigation fluid is used to flush the bladder. The focus should be on ensuring proper drainage and monitoring for clots or obstruction rather than ensuring intake exceeds output.
B. Monitor the client's urine output every eight hours: This is incorrect. Following a transurethral resection of the prostate with continuous bladder irrigation, urine output should be monitored more frequently to ensure the irrigation system is functioning properly and to assess for signs of bleeding or obstruction.
C. Remind the client he might feel a constant urge to void: This is correct. It is common for clients to experience a constant urge to void due to bladder irritation and the presence of the catheter.
D. Assess for manifestations of fluid volume deficiency: This is incorrect. The primary concern with continuous bladder irrigation is monitoring for signs of bleeding or obstruction rather than fluid volume deficiency. Fluid balance is monitored based on intake and output, but deficiency is less likely in this context.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Anthrax: This is incorrect. While a vaccine is available for anthrax, it is generally administered as a pre-exposure prophylaxis, not as a treatment following exposure.
B. Sarin: This is incorrect. Sarin is a nerve agent for which there is no vaccine. Treatment focuses on immediate decontamination and administration of antidotes like atropine.
C. Smallpox: This is correct. A vaccine for smallpox is administered following exposure as a post-exposure prophylaxis, as smallpox is a virus for which immediate vaccination can help prevent the disease.
D. Botulism: This is incorrect. Botulism is treated with antitoxin rather than a vaccine. There is no post-exposure vaccine available for botulism.

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