A nurse is providing teaching about the expected effects of magnesium sulfate to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia.
Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
This medication stabilizes the fetal heart rate
This medication improves tissue perfusion
This medication prevents seizures
This medication increases cardiac output
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While magnesium sulfate can have an effect on the fetal heart rate, it does not primarily function to stabilize it. Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of preeclampsia primarily due to its anticonvulsant properties.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate does not primarily function to improve tissue perfusion. Its main role in the management of preeclampsia is to prevent seizures.
Choice C rationale
This is the correct answer. Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of preeclampsia primarily due to its anticonvulsant properties. It helps to prevent seizures in those with severe preeclampsia, which can minimize the risk of complications.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate does not increase cardiac output. Its primary role in the management of preeclampsia is to prevent seizures.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Maternal cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a serious health concern as it is associated with severe birth defects like sensori-neural hearing loss, impairment of cognitive development, and cerebral palsy. It is acquired by contact with body fluids and by vertical transmission from mother to fetus. Transmission can occur via the saliva and urine of the newborn, which is why this is the correct answer.
Choice B rationale
CMV does not require airborne precautions. It is not an airborne disease; it is spread through close, direct contact with a person infected with the virus.
Choice C rationale
CMV does not cause visible lesions on the mother’s genitalia. This is a characteristic of other sexually transmitted infections, not CMV2.
Choice D rationale
Mothers do not receive prophylactic treatment with acyclovir prior to delivery to prevent CMV2. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not CMV2.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The position of the uterine fundus is not directly related to the client’s ability to void effectively.
Choice B rationale
A client urinating 30 ml/h indicates that the client is able to void effectively. This is the minimum acceptable urine output in an adult client.
Choice C rationale
Not feeling the urge to urinate could indicate a problem such as urinary retention.
Choice D rationale
A distended bladder upon palpation could indicate urinary retention, which means the client is not voiding effectively.
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