A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about risk factors for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Marfan's syndrome
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinson's disease
Male sex
The Correct Answer is A
A. Marfan's syndrome: Marfan's syndrome is a genetic connective tissue disorder that affects the integrity and strength of blood vessels. Individuals with this condition are at increased risk for the development of cerebral aneurysms, which may rupture and lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage, making it an important vascular risk factor.
B. Alzheimer’s disease: Alzheimer’s disease involves progressive neurodegeneration and cognitive decline, but it does not directly increase the risk of bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Its pathology does not involve vascular abnormalities related to aneurysm formation.
C. Parkinson’s disease: Parkinson’s disease affects the motor control centers of the brain due to dopamine depletion, but it does not involve changes in cerebral blood vessels. Therefore, it is not linked to an increased risk of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. Male sex: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is slightly more common in females, particularly due to hormonal and vascular differences. Male sex is not a recognized independent risk factor for aneurysmal rupture or spontaneous SAH.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A decrease in intracellular fluid volume: A reduction in intracellular fluid volume often results from hypertonic conditions in the extracellular space, which can draw water out of cells. This shift can actually increase serum osmolality rather than decrease it.
B. An increase in hydrostatic pressure: Increased hydrostatic pressure promotes fluid movement from the vascular space into the interstitial tissues, contributing to edema. However, this does not significantly impact the concentration of solutes in the serum and therefore does not directly cause a decrease in osmolality.
C. An increase in serum sodium: Sodium is the main contributor to serum osmolality, so an increase in serum sodium raises osmolality. This is the opposite of what occurs in heart failure, where sodium levels are often diluted due to fluid retention.
D. An increase in vascular fluid volume: In heart failure, the kidneys retain fluid in response to decreased cardiac output, expanding the vascular volume. This excess water dilutes the concentration of solutes in the blood, such as sodium, leading to a decrease in serum osmolality.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "You have fewer red blood cells": Sickle cell anemia results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin, which causes red blood cells to sickle, leading to a reduction in the number of healthy red blood cells. This decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, causing fatigue.
B. "You have had a gastrointestinal bleed": Gastrointestinal bleeding can cause anemia, but this is not the primary cause of fatigue in sickle cell anemia. The fatigue is more directly related to the anemia resulting from the sickling of red blood cells.
C. "You have a low ferritin level": Ferritin is a measure of iron storage, and although iron deficiency can lead to fatigue, it is not the primary cause of fatigue in sickle cell anemia. The fatigue is mainly due to the reduced number of red blood cells and their impaired ability to carry oxygen.
D. "You have an autoimmune disease": Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder, not an autoimmune disease. The fatigue arises from anemia caused by the sickling of red blood cells, not from an autoimmune process.
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