A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about risk factors for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Marfan's syndrome
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinson's disease
Male sex
The Correct Answer is A
A. Marfan's syndrome: Marfan's syndrome is a genetic connective tissue disorder that affects the integrity and strength of blood vessels. Individuals with this condition are at increased risk for the development of cerebral aneurysms, which may rupture and lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage, making it an important vascular risk factor.
B. Alzheimer’s disease: Alzheimer’s disease involves progressive neurodegeneration and cognitive decline, but it does not directly increase the risk of bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Its pathology does not involve vascular abnormalities related to aneurysm formation.
C. Parkinson’s disease: Parkinson’s disease affects the motor control centers of the brain due to dopamine depletion, but it does not involve changes in cerebral blood vessels. Therefore, it is not linked to an increased risk of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. Male sex: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is slightly more common in females, particularly due to hormonal and vascular differences. Male sex is not a recognized independent risk factor for aneurysmal rupture or spontaneous SAH.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Your heart condition is caused when the ventricular tissue becomes fibrous and fatty": This description aligns more with restrictive cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) involves the enlargement and weakening of the ventricles rather than fibrous or fatty tissue replacement.
B. "Your heart condition is caused by excessive stretching of the ventricles": Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the excessive stretching of the ventricles, leading to poor contraction and reduced pumping efficiency. This is the most accurate explanation of the condition.
C. "Your heart condition is caused by thickening of the ventricular walls and septum": This description refers to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not dilated cardiomyopathy. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by thickened heart walls, not dilation.
D. "Your heart condition is caused from stiffening of the walls of the ventricles": This description refers to restrictive cardiomyopathy, where the heart walls become stiff and less able to expand and contract properly, not dilated cardiomyopathy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Gonorrhea: This is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) and is not specifically associated with CD4 count decline. Clients with low CD4 levels are more vulnerable to opportunistic infections rather than common STIs.
B. Hepatitis: Although clients with HIV are at increased risk for hepatitis B or C co-infection, hepatitis is not considered an opportunistic infection tied to a CD4 count below 200/mm³.
C. Chlamydia: Like gonorrhea, chlamydia is an STI and not opportunistic in nature. It can occur at any stage of HIV, regardless of CD4 count, and does not specifically correlate with immune suppression.
D. Tuberculosis: Tuberculosis is an opportunistic infection that becomes more likely when CD4 counts fall below 200/mm³. Clients with advanced HIV are at high risk for reactivation of latent TB or new infection due to compromised cellular immunity.
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