A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs."

"Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function."

"Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron."

"Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.

B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.

C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.

D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.

A. Pulmonary congestion B. Urticaria C. Vomiting D. Low back pain

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Pulmonary congestion: Pulmonary congestion is associated more with fluid overload or transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), not an acute hemolytic reaction.

B. Urticaria: Urticaria (hives) is more typical of a mild allergic reaction rather than an acute hemolytic reaction.

C. Vomiting: Although nausea and vomiting may occur in various transfusion reactions, it is not specific to an acute hemolytic reaction like low back pain is.

D. Low back pain: Low back pain, often around the kidneys, is a classic sign of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the breakdown of RBCs and the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to renal damage. This reaction is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an indication the client is having an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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