A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postpartum and receiving warfarin for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Take 650 milligrams of aspirin for leg discomfort."
"You should not take oral contraceptives while taking this medication."
"You will be able to stop taking this medication in 2 weeks."
"Use a disposable razor for shaving while taking this medication."
The Correct Answer is B
- Rationale for A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when combined with warfarin, an anticoagulant. Therefore, taking aspirin for leg discomfort is not recommended as it can exacerbate bleeding risks.
- Rationale for B: Oral contraceptives can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Women taking warfarin, especially in the postpartum period, should avoid oral contraceptives due to the potential for increased blood clotting.
- Rationale for C: The duration of warfarin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis is typically longer than 2 weeks. It is determined by the physician based on the extent of the clot and the patient's response to the medication.
- Rationale for D: Using a disposable razor can help minimize the risk of cuts and subsequent bleeding, which is a concern when taking anticoagulants like warfarin. It is a safer alternative to other shaving methods that may cause skin abrasions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Chronic hypertension is a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Pregnant clients with pre-existing high blood pressure are at increased risk for developing this condition, which can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby.
B. Maternal age of 30 years is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Advanced maternal age (35 years and older) is more commonly associated with an increased risk.
C. The third pregnancy alone is not a risk factor for preeclampsia. First pregnancies or a history of preeclampsia in previous pregnancies are more relevant risk factors.
D. A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal weight range and is not associated with an increased risk of preeclampsia. Obesity or a high BMI is more closely linked to the development of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Fever is not a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. Fever is more commonly associated with infection or other causes and would require further investigation but is not directly linked to the epidural itself.
B. Tachypnea is not an expected adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. It may be a sign of anxiety, pain, or respiratory complications, but it is not typically caused by the epidural.
C. Tachycardia can be an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. It may occur as a compensatory mechanism due to hypotension, which is a known side effect of epidural anesthesia. When blood pressure drops, the heart rate may increase to maintain cardiac output.
D. Hypertension is generally not associated with epidural anesthesia. Hypotension is more common due to the vasodilatory effects caused by sympathetic nerve blockade, rather than an increase in blood pressure.
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