A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse about incident reports.
The nurse should identify that which of the following situations requires the completion of an incident report?
Nitroglycerin transdermal was applied to a client’s chest.
Cefotaxime was administered to a client after obtaining blood cultures.
Digoxin was administered to a client who has a heart rate of 64/min.
Insulin lispro was administered to a client immediately before bed.
The Correct Answer is D
Insulin lispro was administered to a client immediately before bed. This is a situation that requires the completion of an incident report because insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given within 15 minutes before or after a meal. Giving it immediately before bed can cause hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) during the night, which can be dangerous for the client.
Choice A is wrong because nitroglycerin transdermal is a medication used to prevent angina (chest pain) and can be applied to a client’s chest as prescribed.
Choice B is wrong because cefotaxime is an antibiotic that can be administered to a client after obtaining blood cultures to treat an infection.
Choice C is wrong because digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation and can be administered to a client who has a heart rate of 64/min, which is within the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should begin discharge planning upon the client’s admission. This is because discharge planning is a key aspect of effective care that reduces the length of stay, emergency readmissions and pressure on hospital beds. Discharge planning involves considering what support might be required by the client in the community, referring the client to these services, and liaising with these services to manage the client’s discharge.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse is not responsible for providing a written prescription for a client home care referral. This is the role of the provider or another authorised prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because a home hazard appraisal does not include an assessment of the client’s financial resources. A home hazard appraisal is an evaluation of the safety and accessibility of the client’s home environment.
Choice D is wrong because a medication reconciliation is not required 24 hours prior to the client’s discharge. A medication reconciliation is a process of comparing the medications a client is taking with those prescribed for them to avoid errors or discrepancies. A medication reconciliation should be done at every transition of care, including admission, transfer and discharge.
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