A nurse is reviewing a client's history and physical examination findings. Which information would the nurse identify as contributing to the client's risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
recurrent pelvic infections
heavy, irregular menses
use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
ovarian cyst 2 years ago
The Correct Answer is A
A. Recurrent pelvic infections:
Pelvic infections, particularly those affecting the fallopian tubes (such as pelvic inflammatory disease), can lead to scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes. Scar tissue can obstruct the normal passage of the fertilized egg, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
B. Heavy, irregular menses:
While irregular menstrual cycles can sometimes be associated with conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), heavy and irregular menses are not typically considered direct risk factors for ectopic pregnancy. However, underlying conditions contributing to irregular menstrual cycles, such as hormonal imbalances or conditions affecting the reproductive organs, could potentially increase the risk.
C. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years:
Oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are known to significantly reduce the risk of ectopic pregnancy. They work by preventing ovulation and altering the uterine lining, making it less likely for a fertilized egg to implant outside the uterus. Therefore, long-term use of oral contraceptives would generally decrease the risk of ectopic pregnancy rather than increase it.
D. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago:
While ovarian cysts are common and usually benign, they typically do not directly contribute to the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, certain types of ovarian cysts, such as those associated with conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or endometriosis, may indirectly affect fertility and increase the risk of complications during pregnancy, including ectopic pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. adjunct therapy to radiation and chemotherapy:
This option is not applicable to HIV/AIDS treatment. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is specifically used to treat HIV infection by targeting the replication of the virus. It is not used as adjunct therapy to radiation or chemotherapy, which are treatments typically used for cancer.
B. treatment of opportunistic infections:
While antiretroviral therapy (ART) can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary purpose is not the treatment of these infections. Rather, ART focuses on suppressing the replication of the HIV virus itself.
C. reduction in viral loads in the blood:
This is the correct rationale for antiretroviral therapy. The main goal of ART is to reduce the viral load in the blood to undetectable levels. By doing so, ART helps to slow the progression of HIV infection, improve immune function, and reduce the risk of transmitting the virus to others.
D. can cure acute HIV/AIDS infections:
This statement is incorrect. While antiretroviral therapy (ART) is highly effective in controlling HIV infection and preventing progression to AIDS, it does not cure acute HIV/AIDS infections. HIV remains a chronic condition that requires lifelong management with ART.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 1,000 cells/mm3:
A CD4 cell count of 1,000 cells/mm3 is within the normal range for a healthy individual. In HIV-positive individuals, a CD4 count at this level would generally indicate that the immune system is functioning well and has not been significantly compromised by the virus. Therefore, a CD4 count of 1,000 cells/mm3 would not suggest a diagnosis of AIDS.
B. 700 cells/mm3:
Similarly, a CD4 cell count of 700 cells/mm3 is also within the normal range for immune function. While this count may be lower than the typical CD4 count in a healthy individual, it is still considered relatively high and would not indicate immune compromise to the extent seen in AIDS.
C. 450 cells/mm3:
A CD4 cell count of 450 cells/mm3 is also within a range that suggests the immune system is functioning reasonably well. While it may be lower than normal, it is not at a level indicative of severe immune suppression characteristic of AIDS.
D. 200 cells/mm3:
When the CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3, it indicates significant immune suppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This threshold is used to diagnose AIDS in HIV-positive individuals. At this level, the immune system is severely compromised, leaving the individual vulnerable to various infections and diseases associated with AIDS.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.