A nurse is monitoring a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously.
Which of the following signs indicates magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention?
Loss of reflexes
Headache
Nausea
Blurred vision
The Correct Answer is A
According to Mayo Clinic, loss of reflexes is a sign of magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention.
Other signs of magnesium toxicity include:
• Decreased urine output
• Difficulty breathing
• Drowsiness or confusion
• Low blood pressure
• Slow heart rate
• Weakness
Choice B is wrong because headache is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because nausea is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a side effect of magnesium sulfate or a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because blurred vision is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
It may be a symptom of preeclampsia or other conditions, but it does not indicate an overdose of magnesium sulfate.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To increase placental perfusion.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that dilates the blood vessels and lowers the blood pressure.By doing so, it improves the blood flow to the placenta and reduces the risk of fetal hypoxia and growth restriction.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is a complication of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia that can cause seizures, headaches, and visual disturbances.Hydralazine may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of stroke, but it does not directly affect the brain swelling.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce uterine contractions.
Uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins, which are not affected by hydralazine.Hydralazine may cause reflex tachycardia, which can increase the cardiac output and uterine blood flow, but it does not alter the uterine muscle activity.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not promote diuresis.
Diuresis is the increased production of urine by the kidneys.
Hydralazine may cause fluid retention and edema by activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.Hydralazine may also cause a decrease in renal perfusion and glomerular filtration rate, which can impair the kidney function and urine output.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, B, C and E.The nurse should monitor the client’s deep tendon reflexes hourly because magnesium sulfate can cause neuromuscular blockade and decreased reflexes.The nurse should keep calcium gluconate readily available because it is the antidote for magnesium toxicity.The nurse should maintain a urine output of at least 40 mL/hr because magnesium is excreted by the kidneys and low urine output can indicate renal impairment or fluid overload.The nurse should check the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes because magnesium sulfate can cause hypotension and preeclampsia can cause hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because the medication should not be infused via a peripheral IV line, but rather through a central line or a large-bore IV catheter to prevent tissue damage.
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