A nurse is teaching a client scheduled for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"This test will help my provider adjust my warfarin dosages."

"If my levels are too low, I am at an increased risk for bleeding."

"It measures deficiencies in clotting factors."

"I will need to skip breakfast until after the test is complete

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "This test will help my provider adjust my warfarin dosages": aPTT is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Instead, it is more commonly associated with monitoring heparin therapy.

B. "If my levels are too low, I am at an increased risk for bleeding": This statement is inaccurate. Low levels of clotting factors could lead to a prolonged aPTT, which might increase the risk of bleeding.

C. "It measures deficiencies in clotting factors."

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a laboratory test that evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The aPTT measures the time it takes for a clot to form and reflects the activity of various clotting factors, including factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. An elevated aPTT may indicate a deficiency or dysfunction of one or more clotting factors.

D. "I will need to skip breakfast until after the test is complete": There is no need for the client to skip breakfast before an aPTT test. The test is not affected by food intake.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

pH 7.22: Indicates acidosis (normal range: 7.35-7.45).

PaCO2 68 mm Hg: Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide, suggesting respiratory acidosis (normal range: 35-45 mm Hg).

Base excess -2: Indicates a mild metabolic acidosis.

PaO2 78 mm Hg: Within the normal range (80-100 mm Hg), indicating adequate oxygenation.

Saturation 80%: Below the normal range (95-100%), suggesting some degree of hypoxemia.

Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L: Elevated bicarbonate levels, suggesting metabolic compensation for the respiratory acidosis.

Therefore, the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation (mild metabolic acidosis).

A. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr B. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission C. 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous D. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct answer: C

A. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is a loop diuretic used to help reduce fluid overload and manage heart failure symptoms. This medication helps remove excess fluid from the body and can be beneficial for a client with acute heart failure following an MI.

B. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission: It is common to monitor serum potassium levels in patients receiving diuretics, especially loop diuretics, to prevent electrolyte imbalances.

C.Administering 0.9% normal saline IV at a continuous rate can potentially exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, leading to fluid overload and worsening symptoms. In acute heart failure, fluid management is critical, and fluids are typically restricted to prevent further strain on the heart.

D. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain: Morphine sulfate is prescribed for pain management and is commonly used in acute heart failure situations to relieve anxiety and decrease preload on the heart. The dosing frequency is appropriate as "every 2 hr PRN" indicates it should be administered as needed for pain relief.

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A nurse is teaching a client scheduled for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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