A nurse is teaching a client who has stable angina and a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches 0.8 mg/hr daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“I can cut the patches in half to save money."
“I will apply a new patch to the same site whenever I replace it."
“I will take the patch off after dinner every night."
"I can put a second patch on if I have chest pain."
The Correct Answer is C
A. “I can cut the patches in half to save money": Cutting nitroglycerin patches is not recommended as it can alter the medication's release rate and efficacy. Therefore, this statement indicates a misunderstanding and should be corrected.
B. “I will apply a new patch to the same site whenever I replace it": Rotating patch sites is essential to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Therefore, this statement indicates a misunderstanding and should be corrected.
C. “I will take the patch off after dinner every night": This statement demonstrates understanding because nitroglycerin patches are typically worn for a certain number of hours (e.g., 12-14 hours) and then removed for a drug-free interval to prevent tolerance development.
D. "I can put a second patch on if I have chest pain": Applying multiple nitroglycerin patches simultaneously can lead to excessive vasodilation and hypotension, which can be dangerous. Therefore, this statement indicates a misunderstanding and should be corrected.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range: While monitoring liver function tests is essential for clients taking isoniazid and rifampin due to
potential hepatotoxicity, normal liver function test results do not necessarily indicate adherence to the medication regimen. Adherence is best assessed by the client's response to treatment, such as improvement in symptoms and resolution of the infection.
B. The client has a positive purified protein derivative test: A positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis but does not provide information about the client's adherence to the medication regimen for tuberculosis treatment. Adherence to treatment is determined by factors such as medication compliance and therapeutic response.
C. The client tests negative for HIV: The client's HIV status is not directly related to adherence to the tuberculosis medication regimen. While co-infection with HIV can impact the management of tuberculosis, testing negative for HIV does not confirm adherence to tuberculosis treatment.
D. The client has a negative sputum culture: A negative sputum culture indicates the absence of viable Mycobacterium tuberculosis organisms in the sputum sample and suggests effective
treatment and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring sputum culture conversion is a key indicator of treatment success in tuberculosis therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Respiratory rate: While propranolol can potentially affect respiratory function in individuals with certain respiratory conditions, such as asthma, assessing the respiratory rate is not typically a priority assessment before administering propranolol.
B. HR rate: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that primarily affects heart rate and blood pressure.
Therefore, assessing the heart rate (HR) is crucial prior to administering propranolol, as it can cause bradycardia and heart block.
C. Pain level: Propranolol is not typically associated with pain modulation or analgesic effects.
Assessing pain level may be relevant for other medications or conditions but is not specifically related to propranolol administration.
D. Temperature: Propranolol does not typically affect body temperature, and assessing temperature is not typically necessary before administering propranolol.
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