A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Administer pain medication.
Administer antibiotic therapy.
Administer an antiviral medication.
Administer an antitoxin.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Flu-like symptoms: This is correct. Inhalation anthrax initially presents with flu-like symptoms, including fever, cough, and malaise. This early presentation can progress to severe respiratory distress and systemic illness.
B. Vesicles on the skin: This is incorrect. Vesicular lesions are more characteristic of diseases such as smallpox or chickenpox, not anthrax.
C. Respiratory failure: While respiratory failure can occur with advanced inhalation anthrax, it is a later-stage complication rather than an initial finding.
D. Flaccid paralysis: This is incorrect. Flaccid paralysis is not a typical symptom of anthrax exposure but may be associated with diseases such as botulism.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
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