A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

Prothrombin time (PT)

International normalized ratio (INR)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Platelet count.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade.

Dabigatran prolongs the aPTT, which is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation. The aPTT can be used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, although routine monitoring is not required.

Choice A) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are not affected by dabigatran.

PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

Choice B) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized version of PT that is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

INR is not affected by dabigatran.

Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is a measure of the number of platelets in the blood, which are involved in primary hemostasis.

Platelet count is not affected by dabigatran, which acts on secondary hemostasis.

Normal ranges for these tests are:

• aPTT: 25 to 35 seconds

• PT: 11 to 13.5 seconds

• INR: 0.8 to 1.2

• Platelet count: 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter of blood

Nursing Test Bank

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms.It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.

Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it.This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it.This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it.This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.

A. History of hypertension B. History of stroke C. History of peptic ulcer disease D. History of diabetes mellitus. E. Shortness of breath.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

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A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

A client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed apixaban (Eliquis) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instructions should be included in patient teaching? Select all that apply.