A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Decreased heart rate
Increased contractility
Dilated coronary arteries
Reduced blood pressure E.
Relieved chest pain.
Correct Answer : C,E
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms. It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.
Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it. This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it. This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it. This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.
Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.
Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.
Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa) is a medication that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.
However, it can also cause bleeding as a side effect.
Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of unusual bleeding or bruising, blood in urine or stool, or abdominal pain or swelling immediately.These could indicate a serious complication such as gastrointestinal bleeding, hemorrhage, or internal organ damage.
Choice D, headache or dizziness, is not a correct answer.
Although these symptoms could be caused by dabigatran, they are not as serious or urgent as bleeding.
They could also be due to other factors such as dehydration, low blood pressure, or stress.The nurse should advise the client to monitor these symptoms and seek medical attention if they persist or worsen.
Choice E, shortness of breath, is not a correct answer.
Shortness of breath is not a common side effect of dabigatran.
However, it could be a symptom of atrial fibrillation or its complications such as heart failure or stroke.The nurse should educate the client about the signs and symptoms of these conditions and instruct them to call 911 if they experience chest pain, palpitations, fainting, or weakness.
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