A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg.
The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension.
The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).
The patient's speech is difficult to understand.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Bradykinesia: Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement and is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease. It is not typically assessed through neck flexion in the context of meningitis.
B. Kernig's sign: Kernig's sign is assessed by flexing the patient's hip and knee and then attempting to extend the knee. Resistance or pain during knee extension suggests meningeal irritation, but it does not involve the involuntary flexion of the legs.
C. Nuchal rigidity: Nuchal rigidity refers to stiffness and pain in the neck and inability to flex the neck forward due to inflammation of the meninges. While it is related to meningitis, it does not involve involuntary flexion of the legs.
D. Brudzinski's sign: Brudzinski's sign is a physical exam finding where passive flexion of the neck results in involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. It is a classic sign of meningeal irritation, often seen in meningitis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Observe the client's ability to smile and frown: This assessment is related to cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), which controls facial expressions.
B. Instruct the client to look up and down without moving his head: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve) controls eye movements, including upward and downward gaze. Asking the client to look up and down without moving the head assesses the function of this nerve.
C. Ask the client to shrug his shoulders against passive resistance: This assessment is related to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles involved in shoulder shrugging.
D. Have the client stand with eyes his closed and touch his nose: This assessment is part of the cerebellar function test and assesses coordination and proprioception but does not specifically assess cranial nerve III.
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