Which of the following should be the highest priority of education plan for a client being treated with medication therapy for a generalized seizure disorder?
Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks
Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications
Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful
Take medication even if there is no seizure activity
The Correct Answer is D
A. Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks: While it is important for the client to understand the timeline for therapeutic effects, ensuring medication adherence, especially during the initial period when therapeutic effects are not yet apparent, is of higher priority.
B. Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications: While the potential for physical dependency is an important consideration, ensuring medication compliance and adherence to the prescribed regimen, particularly in the context of managing seizures, takes precedence.
C. Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful: While this information may be included in the education plan to address potential side effects of antiepileptic medications, it is not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client understands the importance of taking medication regularly.
D. Take medication even if there is no seizure activity: Ensuring consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing seizure disorders to maintain therapeutic blood levels of antiepileptic medications and reduce the risk of breakthrough seizures. Missing doses can increase the risk of seizure recurrence.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.
B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.
C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.
D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The patient reports having a stiff neck: While a stiff neck may indicate meningeal irritation, which can be associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not as immediately concerning as hypotension, which can indicate hypovolemic shock or complications such as vasospasm.
B. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs): The presence of red blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid is expected in a subarachnoid hemorrhage and is an important diagnostic finding but may not require immediate intervention.
C. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache: While a severe and unrelenting headache is a common symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not as urgent as addressing hypotension, which can indicate hemodynamic instability and compromise perfusion to vital organs.
D. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg: Hypotension in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage can indicate hypovolemic shock, vasospasm, or other complications. It is important to communicate this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further
evaluation and management.
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