Which of the following should be the highest priority of education plan for a client being treated with medication therapy for a generalized seizure disorder?
Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks
Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications
Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful
Take medication even if there is no seizure activity
The Correct Answer is D
A. Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks: While it is important for the client to understand the timeline for therapeutic effects, ensuring medication adherence, especially during the initial period when therapeutic effects are not yet apparent, is of higher priority.
B. Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications: While the potential for physical dependency is an important consideration, ensuring medication compliance and adherence to the prescribed regimen, particularly in the context of managing seizures, takes precedence.
C. Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful: While this information may be included in the education plan to address potential side effects of antiepileptic medications, it is not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client understands the importance of taking medication regularly.
D. Take medication even if there is no seizure activity: Ensuring consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing seizure disorders to maintain therapeutic blood levels of antiepileptic medications and reduce the risk of breakthrough seizures. Missing doses can increase the risk of seizure recurrence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client can follow simple motor commands: A GCS score of 5 for the best motor response indicates that the client can localize pain but cannot follow simple motor commands. A score of 6 or higher is required to demonstrate following commands.
B. The client is unable to make vocal sound: A GCS score of 5 for the best verbal response indicates incomprehensible sounds or no verbal response. It does not specifically indicate the client's ability to vocalize or make sounds.
C. The client opens his eyes when spoken to: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening indicates no eye opening even to painful stimuli. It does not suggest that the client opens his eyes when spoken to.
D. The client is unconscious: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response indicates severe neurological impairment, with the client being unresponsive to stimuli and unable to follow commands. Therefore, the appropriate conclusion is that the client is unconscious.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
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