A patient has just spontaneously ruptured her membranes. Which of the following factors makes her especially high risk for having a prolapsed cord? Select all that apply.

Occiput anterior position.

Breech presentation.

Cervical dilation 5 cm.

Station-4.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,D

A. Occiput anterior position. The occiput anterior (OA) position is the ideal fetal position for vaginal delivery, where the baby’s head is well-engaged in the pelvis. This positioning reduces the risk of a prolapsed cord since the presenting part (the fetal head) effectively blocks the cord from slipping through.

B. Breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are the presenting part, leaving more space in the birth canal. This increases the risk of cord prolapse, especially if the feet or buttocks do not fully block the cervix, allowing the umbilical cord to slip past and become compressed.

C. Cervical dilation 5 cm. While cervical dilation is important in labor progression, it does not directly increase the risk of cord prolapse. The risk is more dependent on fetal position and station rather than the degree of cervical dilation.

D. Station -4. A high fetal station (e.g., -4) means the baby’s presenting part has not yet descended into the pelvis, leaving more room for the umbilical cord to slip through once the membranes rupture. A well-engaged fetus at station 0 or lower helps prevent prolapse by blocking the cervix.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up." This statement is incorrect because close follow-up is essential after a molar pregnancy to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) or choriocarcinoma. Regular hCG level monitoring is required weekly until levels are undetectable, then monthly for at least 6–12 months. Delaying follow-up for a year could lead to missed complications.

B. "I will use contraception for the next year." This statement is correct. Pregnancy should be avoided for at least one year after a molar pregnancy to ensure accurate monitoring of hCG levels. A rising hCG level could indicate malignant transformation rather than a new pregnancy.

C. "I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year." This statement is correct. Choriocarcinoma is a potential complication of molar pregnancy, and early detection through serial hCG monitoring is crucial. Any persistent or rising hCG levels may indicate malignancy requiring chemotherapy.

D. "I am so sad that I lost this baby." This statement is understandable. A molar pregnancy is an emotionally distressing event, and feelings of grief and loss are valid. Emotional support, counseling, or support groups may be beneficial for the patient’s mental well-being.

A. Diuresis B. Hypotension C. Increased risk for seizures D. Excessive uterine bleeding.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.

B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.

C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.

D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.

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A patient has just spontaneously ruptured her membranes. Which of the following factors makes her especially high risk for having a prolapsed cord? Select all that apply.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is being discharged from the hospital after the evacuation of a molar pregnancy. The nurse recognizes that additional discharge teaching is required when the patient makes which statement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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