A patient has just spontaneously ruptured her membranes. Which of the following factors makes her especially high risk for having a prolapsed cord? Select all that apply.
Occiput anterior position.
Breech presentation.
Cervical dilation 5 cm.
Station-4.
Correct Answer : B,D
A. Occiput anterior position. The occiput anterior (OA) position is the ideal fetal position for vaginal delivery, where the baby’s head is well-engaged in the pelvis. This positioning reduces the risk of a prolapsed cord since the presenting part (the fetal head) effectively blocks the cord from slipping through.
B. Breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are the presenting part, leaving more space in the birth canal. This increases the risk of cord prolapse, especially if the feet or buttocks do not fully block the cervix, allowing the umbilical cord to slip past and become compressed.
C. Cervical dilation 5 cm. While cervical dilation is important in labor progression, it does not directly increase the risk of cord prolapse. The risk is more dependent on fetal position and station rather than the degree of cervical dilation.
D. Station -4. A high fetal station (e.g., -4) means the baby’s presenting part has not yet descended into the pelvis, leaving more room for the umbilical cord to slip through once the membranes rupture. A well-engaged fetus at station 0 or lower helps prevent prolapse by blocking the cervix.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
While many women are able to get pregnant again after an ectopic pregnancy, it is not guaranteed. The ability to conceive again depends on various factors, such as:
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The extent of damage to the fallopian tube.
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Whether one or both tubes are still functional.
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The treatment used (e.g., methotrexate vs. surgery).
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Any underlying fertility issues.
It is important to be honest but reassuring, explaining that many women do go on to have healthy pregnancies, but future fertility can be affected and should be discussed with a healthcare provider. Saying she "absolutely will" get pregnant again is inaccurate and potentially misleading.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Maternal temperature of 101.4°F. A fever may indicate infection (chorioamnionitis), but it is not an immediate reason to stop oxytocin. The nurse should monitor for additional signs of infection and notify the provider, but the priority is fetal well-being.
B. Maternal blood pressure of 138/89. This blood pressure is not critically high and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. Oxytocin can cause fluid retention and slight blood pressure changes, but this reading alone does not require stopping the infusion.
C. Change in fetal baseline heart rate from 125 to 90. A decrease in fetal heart rate (bradycardia) is a sign of fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal hypoxia. The priority is to stop oxytocin, reposition the mother, provide oxygen, and notify the provider.
D. Change in the maternal pulse from 80 to 93. A mild increase in heart rate is not uncommon during labor and may be due to pain, anxiety, or IV fluids. It does not indicate an emergency or the need to stop oxytocin.
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