A patient is experiencing status epileptics. The nurse anticipates immediate administration of which drug?
Diazepam
Phenobarbital
Valproic acid
Phenytoin
The Correct Answer is A
A) Diazepam
Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus, especially in emergency situations. It works by quickly calming overactive electrical activity in the brain and can be administered intravenously for rapid effect. Diazepam is commonly given as an initial treatment due to its fast onset of action in stopping seizures.
B) Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital is an anticonvulsant that can also be used for seizures, but it is typically used in cases where seizures persist after initial treatment, or as a long-term maintenance therapy. It is not the first-line drug for status epilepticus and is typically administered after other options like diazepam have been tried.
C) Valproic acid
Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant used for chronic seizure management (like for generalized seizures and some focal seizures), but it is not typically used as the immediate treatment in status epilepticus. It may be used in the long-term management or when other drugs fail, but diazepam or lorazepam are preferred for immediate control of seizures.
D) Phenytoin
Phenytoin is another commonly used anticonvulsant, but it has a slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam. While phenytoin is often used for long-term seizure prevention, it is not the most immediate choice in an emergency setting. After initial seizure control with a benzodiazepine, phenytoin may be given for continued seizure prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Neutropenia
Neutropenia refers to an abnormally low level of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell. While certain medications, such as chemotherapy agents and some antipsychotic drugs, can cause neutropenia, atenolol (a beta-blocker) is not typically associated with this side effect. Atenolol primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing heart rate and blood pressure, and it is not known to cause significant changes in white blood cell counts.
B) Bradycardia
Bradycardia, or a slower-than-normal heart rate, is a well-known and common adverse effect of beta-blockers, including atenolol. Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which decreases the heart rate and the force of contraction, as well as lowering blood pressure. In some individuals, this can lead to excessively low heart rates, which could be dangerous if the heart rate drops too much. Bradycardia can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, or fatigue, and may require dose adjustments or discontinuation of the medication
C) Anemia
Anemia, which is a condition characterized by a low red blood cell count or low hemoglobin levels, is generally not a common adverse effect of atenolol. While certain medications like some chemotherapeutic agents, NSAIDs, or antibiotics may cause anemia due to their effects on the bone marrow or by causing gastrointestinal bleeding, atenolol is not typically linked to this side effect.
D) Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is typically associated with the use of diuretics or other medications that cause the kidneys to excrete more potassium, such as some classes of antibiotics and corticosteroids. However, atenolol, being a beta-blocker, does not directly affect potassium levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) 0.2 mg
The correct way to write the dosage is 0.2 mg. In pharmacology and medication administration, it is important to follow the guidelines set by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) and other standard bodies, which recommend that a leading zero be used before a decimal point. This helps to prevent errors in interpreting the dosage. Writing 0.2 mg clearly indicates two-tenths of a milligram, and the leading zero makes it easier to avoid misreading the dose as a whole number (2.0 mg) or omitting the decimal point entirely.
B) .2 mg
Writing the dosage as .2 mg (without the leading zero) is considered unsafe and is a poor practice. The absence of the leading zero before the decimal point increases the likelihood that the dose may be misread. For example, someone could confuse .2 mg with 2.0 mg or misinterpret it in a hurried situation, which could lead to a tenfold dosing error
C) 2.0 mg
Writing 2.0 mg would indicate two milligrams, which is not the correct dosage for "two-tenths of a milligram." While this format does use a decimal point, it does not represent the correct dose. This error could lead to an overdose if misread as a whole number.
D) 0.20 mg
While 0.20 mg is technically correct, it is not the preferred or necessary format. The use of two decimal places is unnecessary in this case. Since the dosage is two-tenths of a milligram, 0.2 mg is simpler and clearer. Using an unnecessary trailing zero (the second "0") can cause confusion or misinterpretation, especially in critical settings where every detail counts.
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