A patient is taking aspirin to help prevent myocardial infarction and is experiencing moderate gastrointestinal upset. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss changing from aspirin to which drug?
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Enteric-coated aspirin
Nabumetone (Relafen)
A COX-2 inhibitor
The Correct Answer is A
A) Celecoxib (Celebrex):
Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor that targets the cyclooxygenase-2 enzyme, which is primarily responsible for inflammation, pain, and fever. COX-2 inhibitors tend to cause less gastrointestinal irritation compared to nonselective NSAIDs like aspirin, which block both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. Because aspirin is causing gastrointestinal upset, switching to Celecoxib, which is less likely to irritate the stomach lining, may be an appropriate option to prevent myocardial infarction while minimizing gastrointestinal discomfort.
B) Enteric-coated aspirin:
Enteric-coated aspirin is designed to dissolve in the small intestine rather than the stomach, which may reduce some gastrointestinal irritation. However, it does not eliminate the risk entirely, and it still functions as a COX-1 inhibitor. If the patient is already experiencing gastrointestinal upset, simply switching to enteric-coated aspirin may not be sufficient to alleviate the discomfort, and other options should be considered.
C) Nabumetone (Relafen):
Nabumetone is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with some COX-2 selectivity. While it may cause less gastrointestinal upset than non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin, it is still an NSAID and carries a risk of gastrointestinal side effects, especially with prolonged use.
D) A COX-2 inhibitor:
While COX-2 inhibitors, including Celecoxib, are typically effective in reducing inflammation and pain with fewer gastrointestinal side effects than traditional NSAIDs, the term "a COX-2 inhibitor" could refer to various drugs, and Celecoxib (Celebrex) is the most commonly used.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Decreased blood pressure:
Isoproterenol (Isuprel) is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that primarily stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. It causes vasodilation through beta-2 stimulation, but its predominant effect is increasing heart rate and cardiac output via beta-1 stimulation. This tends to result in an increase in blood pressure
B) Decreased heart rate:
Isoproterenol generally leads to an increase in heart rate because of its beta-1 adrenergic activity, which stimulates the heart's pacemaker cells. It is commonly used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate).
C) Increased body temperature:
Although isoproterenol can lead to increased heart rate and blood flow, it does not directly cause a significant increase in body temperature. Temperature changes are more commonly seen with drugs affecting metabolism or those that induce fever.
D) Increased blood pressure:
Isoproterenol stimulates beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate and cardiac output, which typically results in an increase in blood pressure. However, due to its beta-2 effects, there can be some vasodilation, which may counteract this effect slightly. Despite this, the overall effect of isoproterenol is typically an increase in blood pressure, especially in a shock setting, where improving circulation is critical.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) A 41-year-old man with kidney stones:
Kidney stones primarily affect the urinary system, and while the kidneys play a role in drug excretion, kidney stones themselves do not directly interfere with drug metabolism. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in the liver, so alterations due to kidney stones would be less likely. The liver is where most drug metabolism takes place, so drug metabolism in this case would likely be unaffected by kidney stones.
B) A 62-year-old woman with acute renal failure:
Acute renal failure impacts the kidneys' ability to filter and excrete drugs, but it doesn't directly affect the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. Renal failure can lead to drug accumulation due to decreased clearance, but metabolism (primarily liver function) is not usually altered unless the patient also has hepatic dysfunction.
C) A 35-year-old woman with cervical cancer:
Cervical cancer itself does not directly affect drug metabolism. While cancer treatments like chemotherapy or radiation therapy can affect liver and kidney function (which could impact drug metabolism), cervical cancer itself does not typically alter the metabolic pathways that drugs undergo in the body.
D) A 50-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver:
Cirrhosis of the liver significantly impacts the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. The liver is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism, and cirrhosis can lead to a decreased ability to break down medications, potentially resulting in drug toxicity or suboptimal therapeutic effects.
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