A patient reports weakness of the extremities and diplopia. The nurse knows that these symptoms are characteristic of which condition?

Myasthenia gravis (MG)

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

Cerebral palsy (CP)

Parkinson disease (PD)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Myasthenia gravis (MG):
Weakness of the extremities and diplopia (double vision) are hallmark symptoms of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction. In MG, antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. The weakness typically affects voluntary muscles, including those responsible for eye movement, which leads to symptoms such as diplopia and ptosis (drooping eyelids).

B) Multiple sclerosis (MS):
Multiple sclerosis involves the demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system, leading to a variety of neurological symptoms. While MS can cause weakness and visual disturbances, the typical symptoms of MS include fatigue, muscle spasticity, ataxia, and sensory deficits. Diplopia can occur in MS but is usually accompanied by other neurological signs such as numbness, tingling, or loss of coordination.

C) Cerebral palsy (CP):
Cerebral palsy is a group of disorders affecting movement and posture due to non-progressive brain injury or abnormal brain development, often occurring in early childhood. While CP can cause muscle weakness and coordination issues, it does not typically present with diplopia. Instead, it often involves spasticity, motor impairment, and difficulty with fine motor tasks.

D) Parkinson disease (PD):
Parkinson disease is characterized by tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, and postural instability. While PD can lead to muscle weakness and visual issues like blurred vision, it is not typically associated with diplopia as a primary symptom. The hallmark motor symptoms are primarily related to tremor and difficulty initiating movements rather than generalized weakness and double vision.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Are no longer approved for treating depression: MAO inhibitors (MAOIs) are still approved and used to treat depression, especially in cases where other medications have not been effective. They are not considered obsolete, though their use has become less common due to the availability of safer, more tolerable options. This is not the primary reason why MAOIs may not be prescribed.

B) Are more expensive than other antidepressants: While cost can be a factor in medication choice, it is not the primary reason why MAO inhibitors are less frequently prescribed for depression. There are other more significant concerns, such as side effects and dietary restrictions, that make other medications a preferred first-line choice.

C) Require strict dietary restrictions: This is the most accurate explanation. MAO inhibitors can cause dangerous interactions with certain foods that contain high levels of tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and fermented products. Consuming these foods while on an MAOI can lead to a hypertensive crisis, which is a life-threatening condition. Because of these dietary restrictions, patients on MAOIs must adhere to a strict diet, which can be challenging to manage.

D) Can cause profound hypotension: While hypotension can occur as a side effect of MAOIs, it is not the most significant concern. The more serious risk with MAOIs is the potential for a hypertensive crisis due to dietary interactions with tyramine-containing foods, rather than hypotension. Therefore, the dietary restrictions are a more pressing issue than the risk of hypotension.

A. A 41-yr-old man with kidney stones B. A 62-yr-old woman with acute renal failure C. A 35-yr-old woman with cervical cancer D. A 50-yr-old man with cirrhosis of the liver

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) A 41-year-old man with kidney stones:
Kidney stones primarily affect the urinary system, and while the kidneys play a role in drug excretion, kidney stones themselves do not directly interfere with drug metabolism. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in the liver, so alterations due to kidney stones would be less likely. The liver is where most drug metabolism takes place, so drug metabolism in this case would likely be unaffected by kidney stones.

B) A 62-year-old woman with acute renal failure:
Acute renal failure impacts the kidneys' ability to filter and excrete drugs, but it doesn't directly affect the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. Renal failure can lead to drug accumulation due to decreased clearance, but metabolism (primarily liver function) is not usually altered unless the patient also has hepatic dysfunction.

C) A 35-year-old woman with cervical cancer:
Cervical cancer itself does not directly affect drug metabolism. While cancer treatments like chemotherapy or radiation therapy can affect liver and kidney function (which could impact drug metabolism), cervical cancer itself does not typically alter the metabolic pathways that drugs undergo in the body.

D) A 50-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver:
Cirrhosis of the liver significantly impacts the liver's ability to metabolize drugs. The liver is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism, and cirrhosis can lead to a decreased ability to break down medications, potentially resulting in drug toxicity or suboptimal therapeutic effects.

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A patient reports weakness of the extremities and diplopia. The nurse knows that these symptoms are characteristic of which condition?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient who has been diagnosed with depression asks why the provider has not ordered a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor to treat the disorder. The nurse will explain to the patient that MAO inhibitors

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Drugs do not metabolize the same way in all people. For what patient would a nurse expect to assess for an alteration in drug metabolism?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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