A patient who had open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of left lower leg fractures continues to report severe pain in the leg 15 minutes after receiving the prescribed IV morphine.
The nurse determines pulses are faintly palpable and the foot is cool to the touch.
Which action should the nurse take next?
Check the patient's blood pressure.
Notify the health care provider.
Assess the incision for redness.
Reposition the left leg on a pillow.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Checking the blood pressure is not the priority action in this case. The symptoms described may suggest compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
The correct action is to notify the health care provider immediately as this may indicate compartment syndrome, a serious complication that can occur after fractures and can lead to permanent damage if not treated promptly.
Choice C rationale
Assessing the incision for redness is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms suggest a more severe underlying issue such as compartment syndrome, which requires urgent attention.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the leg may provide temporary relief but does not address the potential underlying issue of compartment syndrome. The priority is to notify the health care provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Condition: Myocardial infarction.
2 actions:
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula 2 L/min,
Request a prescription for aspirin 325 mg.
2 parameters:
Vital signs,
Electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm.
Rationale for correct condition: A myocardial infarction is indicated by the elevated troponin levels and ST elevation on the ECG. The client’s symptoms of chest pain, elevated heart rate, and low oxygen saturation support this diagnosis. Prompt identification and treatment are crucial to minimize heart damage. The medical history of hypertension and coronary artery disease increases the likelihood. Immediate interventions can significantly improve outcomes.
Rationale for actions: Administer oxygen to improve oxygenation and reduce myocardial workload. Requesting aspirin helps prevent further clot formation. Morphine alleviates pain but may obscure symptoms, making it less urgent. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain by vasodilation but is secondary. Verapamil is less immediate for acute myocardial infarction management. Vital signs reflect hemodynamic status and response to treatment. ECG rhythm detects ongoing ischemia or arrhythmias. Monitoring WBC count is less relevant acutely. Platelet count is stable; not the focus in immediate management.
Rationale for parameters: Vital signs ensure hemodynamic stability and detect hypotension or shock. ECG rhythm monitors arrhythmias and ongoing ischemia, critical in myocardial infarction. WBC count indicates infection or inflammation, less immediate concern. Platelet count is important for bleeding risks but less immediate. Chronic stable angina presents with predictable, non-severe pain. Ischemic stroke symptoms differ; focus on neurological deficits. Cardiogenic shock would present with more severe hypotension and signs of organ failure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Preparing the client for lithotripsy is important for treatment but is not the immediate highest priority in an emergency setting. Immediate pain management takes precedence.
Choice B rationale
Ordering a renal ultrasound is necessary for assessing the stones but comes after stabilizing the client's acute symptoms, including managing pain.
Choice C rationale
Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority because renal colic causes severe pain. Immediate pain relief is crucial for the client's comfort and to facilitate further diagnostic and therapeutic interventions.
Choice D rationale
Initiating IV fluid therapy is important for hydration and possibly aiding stone passage but follows after addressing the acute pain.
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