A patient who has sickle cell disease was admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis and reports severe abdominal and flank pain. Which of the following analgesic medications will be MOST appropriate to administer to the patient?
Morphine Sulfate 4 mg IV ATC
Fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch Now
Ibuprofen 800 mg PO
Hydromorphone liquid 5 mg PO
The Correct Answer is A
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While monitoring drug levels is important, sending a trough level before the initial dose is not standard practice. Trough levels are typically checked just before the next dose of a medication is given, especially for antibiotics like Gentamicin that require monitoring for potential toxicity. Therefore, this option is not the best immediate action.
B. While managing the environment and ensuring patient privacy is important, this option does not address any immediate medical needs related to starting the antibiotic infusion.
C. Educating the patient about potential side effects is essential for informed consent and patient safety. However, while important, this is not the most critical action to take prior to the infusion.
D. Before starting an antibiotic treatment, it is crucial to send a culture and sensitivity test to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This ensures that the selected antibiotic (Gentamicin) is appropriate for the identified bacteria, which is vital for effective treatment and to avoid antibiotic resistance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While anemia is a common finding in aplastic anemia, it is not the most comprehensive answer. Aplastic anemia results in a deficiency of all blood cell types due to bone marrow failure, so while anemia is present, it does not fully capture the extent of the disorder.
B. This is the most accurate choice. Pancytopenia refers to the simultaneous reduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to produce adequate blood cells, leading to this triad of cytopenias, making it the hallmark of the disease.
C. Neutropenia, which is a low level of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), can occur in aplastic anemia. However, it is only one component of the broader condition and does not represent the complete picture of the disease.
D. Leukopenia refers to a low white blood cell count. Like neutropenia, it can be a finding in aplastic anemia, but it does not encompass the anemia and thrombocytopenia that also occur.
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