A patient’s blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. He asks the nurse, “What do the numbers mean?” What is the nurse’s best reply?
“The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts.”
“The bottom number is the diastolic pressure and reflects the stroke volume of the heart.”
“The concept of blood pressure is difficult to understand. The primary thing to be concerned about is the top number, or the systolic blood pressure.”
“The numbers are within normal range and are nothing to worry about.”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The systolic pressure (top number) measures arterial pressure during heart contraction, accurately explaining 118/82 mm Hg. This clear, correct definition educates the patient, making it the best reply.
Choice B reason: Diastolic pressure (bottom number) reflects arterial pressure at rest, not stroke volume. Systolic pressure is correctly defined as contraction pressure, so this is incorrect for explaining the numbers.
Choice C reason: Dismissing blood pressure as complex is unhelpful; both numbers matter. Systolic pressure is accurately defined as heart contraction pressure, so this is incorrect for patient education.
Choice D reason: Stating the numbers are normal (118/82 is prehypertension) avoids explaining their meaning. Defining systolic pressure clarifies the reading, so this is incorrect for answering the question.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Herniated brainstem causes bilateral pupil changes and severe neurological signs, not unilateral dilation. Unilateral pupil dilation suggests increased intracranial pressure, so this is incorrect for these findings.
Choice B reason: Unilateral pupil dilation and nonreactivity, as seen in the right pupil, indicate increased intracranial pressure, often from mass effect compressing the oculomotor nerve. This is critical, making it the correct finding.
Choice C reason: Subdural hemorrhage may cause pressure but isn’t specific to these pupil changes. Unilateral dilation points to increased intracranial pressure as the immediate concern, so this is less precise.
Choice D reason: Cerebral edema contributes to pressure but is a broader term. Unilateral pupil dilation specifically suggests increased intracranial pressure, a more immediate and precise diagnosis, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Telling the patient not to worry dismisses their concern and provides no educational value. Inguinal hernias, while common in older men, require explanation and monitoring, as they can lead to complications like incarceration, making this an inappropriate response.
Choice B reason: An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of bowel or tissue through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, typically in the inguinal canal. This accurate explanation addresses the patient’s question, describing the condition’s pathophysiology clearly, making it the correct response.
Choice C reason: Inguinal hernias are typically acquired due to abdominal wall weakness or increased intra-abdominal pressure, not prenatal growth abnormalities. Congenital hernias (e.g., indirect inguinal) are less common in adults, making this an inaccurate explanation for the patient’s condition.
Choice D reason: Referring the patient back to the physician avoids the nurse’s responsibility to educate. Nurses are equipped to explain diagnoses like hernias in simple terms, and deferring entirely does not address the patient’s immediate need for understanding, making this less optimal.
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