A patient with asthma presents with daily peak flow rates consistently at 45% of their personal best. What is the most appropriate action the nurse should take?
Instruct the patient to increase fluid intake.
Schedule a routine follow-up appointment in two weeks.
Advise the patient to avoid all physical activity.
Initiate an asthma action plan and provide oral corticosteroids.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Increasing fluid intake may help with hydration, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for a patient whose peak flow rates are significantly low. The priority is to address the asthma exacerbation.
B. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in two weeks is not appropriate in this situation. The patient is experiencing significant symptoms, and immediate action is required to manage the exacerbation.
C. Advising the patient to avoid all physical activity may not be necessary. Physical activity can be adjusted based on the patient's condition, but the priority is to treat the asthma exacerbation and improve the patient's respiratory status.
D. Initiating an asthma action plan and providing oral corticosteroids is the correct approach. A peak flow rate consistently at 45% of the personal best indicates poor asthma control, and the patient likely requires additional treatment, such as oral corticosteroids, to manage the exacerbation. The asthma action plan should guide further management based on the patient's peak flow rate and symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's is important to maintain vascular access and support circulation, but it is not the first priority in addressing the immediate life-threatening effects of a pulmonary embolism, such as hypoxemia.
B. Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention to address hypoxemia caused by the embolism. Oxygen improves tissue oxygenation and reduces the risk of further complications while other interventions are being initiated.
C. Morphine IV may be administered to relieve pain and anxiety, but this is not the first intervention. Managing oxygenation takes precedence over pain relief in this situation.
D. Initiating cardiac monitoring is necessary to detect arrhythmias or signs of right heart strain associated with pulmonary embolism, but it does not directly address the immediate threat of hypoxemia.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Ipratropium (Atrovent HFA) is an anticholinergic medication that can be used in combination with short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol to help relieve bronchospasm during an acute asthma attack.
B. Albuterol (Proventil HFA) is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) that is commonly used as a first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack to rapidly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow.
C. Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) is a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) used for long-term asthma control, not for acute exacerbations. LABAs are not effective in quickly relieving symptoms during an acute attack.
D. Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene modifier used for long-term asthma management and prevention. It is not effective in treating acute asthma attacks.
E. Inhaled hypertonic saline can help in acute asthma attacks by increasing mucus clearance and improving respiratory function, especially in patients with severe symptoms.
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