Which of the following are common signs and symptoms that can be present when your patient has Rheumatoid Arthritis? (Select all that apply)
Malar rash
Morning stiffness
Swan neck deformities
Bilateral joint deformities
Joint pain at rest
Correct Answer : B,C,D
A. This is primarily associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), not Rheumatoid Arthritis. While some RA patients may have skin changes, a malar rash is not a typical manifestation of RA.
B. Morning stiffness is a hallmark symptom of Rheumatoid Arthritis. Patients often experience stiffness in their joints after periods of inactivity, particularly in the morning, which typically lasts for at least 30 minutes and can improve with movement.
C. Swan neck deformities are specific joint deformities seen in RA, where there is hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joints and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints. This is a common feature in advanced cases of RA.
D. : RA typically presents with symmetrical joint involvement. This means that if one side is affected, the opposite side is likely to be similarly affected, leading to bilateral joint deformities.
E. While joint pain can occur at rest, RA is more characterized by pain and stiffness during periods of inactivity and improvement with movement. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience pain even at rest.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While anemia is a common finding in aplastic anemia, it is not the most comprehensive answer. Aplastic anemia results in a deficiency of all blood cell types due to bone marrow failure, so while anemia is present, it does not fully capture the extent of the disorder.
B. This is the most accurate choice. Pancytopenia refers to the simultaneous reduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to produce adequate blood cells, leading to this triad of cytopenias, making it the hallmark of the disease.
C. Neutropenia, which is a low level of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), can occur in aplastic anemia. However, it is only one component of the broader condition and does not represent the complete picture of the disease.
D. Leukopenia refers to a low white blood cell count. Like neutropenia, it can be a finding in aplastic anemia, but it does not encompass the anemia and thrombocytopenia that also occur.
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