A patient's blood gases show a pH of 7.53, PCO2 of 48, and HCO3 of 36 mEq/L. The nurse realizes that the acid-base disorder this patient is demonstrating is which of the following?

Respiratory Acidosis

Respiratory Alkalosis

Metabolic Alkalosis

Metabolic Acidosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Respiratory Acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a high PCO2, which is not the case here.

Choice B reason: Respiratory Alkalosis would involve a high pH and a low PCO2, which is not consistent with the patient's PCO2 level.

Choice C reason: Metabolic Alkalosis is indicated by a high pH and a high HCO3, which matches the patient's blood gas values.

Choice D reason: Metabolic Acidosis would show a low pH and a low HCO3, which is the opposite of this patient's presentation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

A. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. B. The patient denies pain or burning with voiding. C. The periorbital and peripheral edema are resolved. D. The anti-streptolysin-O (ASO) titer has decreased.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A negative urine dipstick for nitrites is more indicative of a lack of bacterial infection and is not directly related to glomerulonephritis.

Choice B reason: While the absence of pain or burning with voiding is positive, it does not specifically indicate the resolution of glomerulonephritis.

Choice C reason: The resolution of periorbital and peripheral edema is a sign that the treatment for glomerulonephritis has been eﬀective, as edema is a common symptom of this condition.

Choice D reason: A decrease in the anti-streptolysin-O (ASO) titer may indicate a response to treatment for a streptococcal infection, but it is not the most direct indicator of eﬀective treatment for glomerulonephritis.

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A patient's blood gases show a pH of 7.53, PCO2 of 48, and HCO3 of 36 mEq/L. The nurse realizes that the acid-base disorder this patient is demonstrating is which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which finding for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates to the nurse that treatment has been eﬀective?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Vasoconstriction, sodium retention, and water reabsorption to increase circulating ﬂuid volume and cardiac output are the primary functions of:

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