A post myocardial infarction patient experiences atrial fibrillation is most at risk for which type of stroke?
Thrombotic stroke
Cerebral aneurysm
Embolic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
The Correct Answer is C
A. A thrombotic stroke is typically caused by a blood clot that forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, usually due to atherosclerosis. While it is a possible cause of stroke, it is not the most likely in this patient with atrial fibrillation.
B. A cerebral aneurysm involves a weakness in the blood vessel wall that can lead to rupture and bleeding, causing a hemorrhagic stroke, but this is not the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.
C. Embolic stroke occurs when a clot or other debris (such as a thrombus) breaks off from a distant part of the body (like the heart in atrial fibrillation) and travels to the brain, blocking a cerebral artery. This is the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation due to the formation of clots in the left atrium that can embolize to the brain.
D. Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, leading to bleeding. It is not the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation, though it can occur if there is coagulopathy or anticoagulant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Sleeping more during the day than nighttime is not a typical manifestation of primary dementia. While changes in sleep patterns can occur in individuals with dementia, the hallmark features are related to cognitive decline and memory loss, not excessive daytime sleep.
B. Forgetfulness gradually progressing to disorientation is a classic manifestation of primary dementia, particularly Alzheimer's disease. This condition is characterized by progressive memory loss, confusion, and eventually, disorientation.
C. Temporary, reversible loss of brain function is not characteristic of primary dementia. Dementia is typically a progressive and irreversible decline in cognitive function, with symptoms worsening over time.
D. Hypervigilant behaviors are not typically associated with primary dementia. Instead, individuals with dementia may experience confusion, apathy, or withdrawal, but hypervigilance is more commonly associated with conditions such as anxiety or paranoia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A positive Romberg sign (difficulty maintaining balance with eyes closed) can indicate a neurological issue, but it is not directly associated with a migraine.
B. A subnormal temperature (low body temperature) is not typically associated with migraines and may indicate another issue, but it is not as concerning as other findings.
C. An ill college roommate might suggest a viral illness, but it is not a direct concern for the student’s migraine. Migraines are not contagious, and other signs of illness would be more concerning.
D. Positive Brudzinski sign, which involves involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed, is indicative of meningeal irritation, a sign of meningitis. This is a medical emergency and much more concerning than the symptoms of a migraine. The student should be further assessed for signs of meningitis, which requires urgent treatment.
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