A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Choose the best nursing action.
Administer the furosemide, then notify the HCP of potassium results.
Administer both drugs, then notify the HCP of potassium results.
Withhold both drugs and explain to the patient that the medications are contraindicated with hyperkalemia.
Administer the spironolactone, then notify the HCP of potassium results.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Administering furosemide in this scenario would further lower the serum potassium level, as furosemide is a loop diuretic known for causing potassium loss through urine. This action could worsen the patient’s hypokalemia, leading to severe complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, administering furosemide in the presence of hypokalemia is inappropriate and could put the patient at significant risk.
Choice B reason:
Administering both spironolactone and furosemide together without addressing the hypokalemia would not be safe. While spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, combining it with furosemide could negate its potassium-sparing effects. Furthermore, administering furosemide when hypokalemia is present could cause further electrolyte imbalance. Proper evaluation of the patient's condition and selective administration of the medications are crucial in this case.
Choice C reason:
Withholding both medications and attributing the decision to contraindications with hyperkalemia is incorrect because the reported potassium level (3.2 mEq/L) reflects hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Misinterpreting the lab result could delay appropriate treatment, such as correcting the potassium level or safely administering a medication that would not exacerbate the hypokalemia. Proper communication with the healthcare provider is necessary for effective patient care.
Choice D reason:
Administering spironolactone is the best action in this scenario because it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. By administering spironolactone, the risk of worsening hypokalemia is minimized. Notifying the healthcare provider about the low potassium level ensures appropriate monitoring and any necessary interventions, such as potassium supplementation. This approach is both safe and effective in managing the patient’s current condition while adhering to standard nursing practices.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: The patient is alert and oriented x4. This indicates that the patient is fully aware of their surroundings and does not require follow-up for this finding.
Choice B reason: The patient reports nausea. Nausea can be a symptom of many underlying conditions, including gastrointestinal issues or medication side effects, and requires follow-up to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment.
Choice C reason: The abdomen is tender to palpation. Abdominal tenderness can indicate inflammation, infection, or other abdominal pathology, which requires follow-up to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate management.
Choice D reason: The patient is 60 years old. This is a demographic detail and does not indicate a medical condition requiring follow-up.
Choice E reason: The patient has dark amber urine. Dark amber urine can be an indication of dehydration or other underlying conditions that require follow-up to identify and address the cause.
Choice F reason: The patient's oral temperature is 102.4°F. A fever indicates the presence of an infection or other health issue that needs to be investigated and managed.
Choice G reason: The patient is voiding without difficulty. This indicates that there are no issues with urinary function, so no follow-up is required for this finding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox) would not be the most appropriate action for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Enoxaparin, like heparin, is a low molecular weight heparin and can still cause HIT. Therefore, this action does not address the immediate need to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further reduction in platelet levels and manage the HIT effectively.
Choice B reason: Discontinuing the heparin infusion is the correct action for a nurse to take first when a patient is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The primary step in managing HIT is to stop all forms of heparin to prevent further platelet activation and decrease in platelet count. Discontinuing heparin helps to prevent thromboembolic complications associated with HIT. Once heparin is discontinued, the healthcare provider can evaluate alternative anticoagulation therapies that do not cross-react with heparin, such as direct thrombin inhibitors.
Choice C reason: Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) is not appropriate at this stage for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Warfarin can initially lead to a hypercoagulable state, which increases the risk of thrombosis in patients with HIT. The immediate priority is to discontinue heparin, and warfarin should only be considered once platelet counts have recovered and the acute HIT has been managed.
Choice D reason: Preparing for platelet transfusion is not the first action to take for managing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Platelet transfusions are generally avoided in HIT as they can potentially worsen the thrombotic risk. The primary action should be to discontinue heparin and consider alternative anticoagulation therapies. Platelet transfusions may be reserved for cases where there is significant bleeding or invasive procedures are planned.
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