A severely depressed, sullen client has been taking fluoxetine for 10 days. During the first outpatient visit, the client smiles excitedly and states, "I feel so much better now." How should the nurse interpret this behavior change? The:
client may have decided to carry out the suicide plan.
medication has potentiated serotonin syndrome.
medication dosage should be decreased.
client's behavioral change is normal and expected.
The Correct Answer is D
D. This recognizes that the client's improvement in mood is a typical response to antidepressant medication and does not automatically suggest any negative outcomes such as suicidal ideation or serotonin syndrome.
A. It's important to be vigilant for signs of suicidal ideation but sudden improvements in mood can also occur as a positive response to antidepressant medication.
B. The client's description of feeling better does not align with the symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which include agitation, confusion, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, and hyperthermia.
C. Antidepressant medications often take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's not unusual for some clients to experience an improvement in mood within the first few weeks of treatment.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Conduct Disorder is characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior that violates the rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules. It often includes aggressive behavior towards people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
B. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties in social interaction and communication, as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.
C. Oppositional behavior is present in ODD but the severity and nature of the behaviors described in the scenario (prostitution, running away, and abuse towards parents) are more consistent with Conduct Disorder rather than ODD.
D. Childhood depression, also known as pediatric depressive disorder, involves persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, or irritability that interfere with daily functioning.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Naloxone administration can rapidly reverse the effects of opioids, potentially leading to the rapid onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms, which may include respiratory depression. Therefore, close monitoring of the client's airway, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate is critical to ensure their safety and stability.
A. Assessing and managing the client's gastrointestinal status may be necessary depending on the clinical situation but it is not the most urgent concern immediately following naloxone administration.
C. Assessing urinary output and ensuring adequate fluid balance is important. However, it is not the highest priority immediately after naloxone administration.
D. Hyperpyrexia, or extremely high fever, is not a common immediate concern following naloxone administration.
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