A term multigravida, who is receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation, is requesting pain medication. Review of the client's record indicates that she was medicated 30 minutes ago with butorphanol 2 mg and promethazine 25 mg IV push. Vaginal examination reveals that the client's cervical dilation is 3 cm, 10% effaced, and at a 0 station. Which action should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
Coach the client to take slow, deep breaths during each contraction.
Report to the nurse that the client needs another dose of butorphanol.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
The Correct Answer is A
In this situation, the practical nurse (PN) should coach the client to take slow, deep breaths during each contraction. The client has already been medicated with butorphanol and promethazine for pain relief and it may not be appropriate to administer another dose at this time. Instead, the PN can provide non- pharmacological pain relief measures such as coaching the client to use breathing techniques to help manage the pain during contractions. The other actions listed may also be appropriate in some situations, but coaching the client to use breathing techniques is the most appropriate action in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Encouraging the client to initiate daily rituals, such as practicing relaxation techniques, engaging in physical exercise, and spending time with friends and family, can be an effective way to diminish anxiety. These activities can provide a sense of structure and routine that can help to manage stress and anxiety. Options A and C are not recommended because alcohol and caffeine can worsen sleeplessness and anxiety. Option B can be counterproductive and increase the client's anxiety level. Therefore, Option D is the best option to assist this client in diminishing his anxiety.
Therefore, options A, B, and C are not answers because they are not the best action to assist this client in diminishing his anxiety.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A positive indirect Coombs' test indicates that the mother has developed Rh antibodies against the baby's Rh-positive blood. This finding can result in hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition in which the mother's Rh antibodies atack the baby's red blood cells, causing destruction and potential anemia.
The baby may require phototherapy for physiologic jaundice, but the Coombs' test result indicates a different issue.
The presence of an infectious blood-borne disease cannot be determined from this test.
The mother may still need Rho (D) immune globulin injections after delivery of an Rh-positive baby.

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