A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has

Chronic Hypertension

This is a normal Blood Pressure

Preeclampsia

Pregnancy induced hypertension.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Chronic Hypertension. Chronic hypertension is diagnosed when a woman has hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) that was present before pregnancy or develops before 20 weeks gestation. Since this patient has a history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension rather than pregnancy-related hypertension.

B. This is a normal Blood Pressure. A blood pressure of 169/94 mmHg is not normal. This reading indicates hypertension, which requires monitoring and possible medication adjustments to prevent complications such as preeclampsia or fetal growth restriction.

C. Preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and includes hypertension along with signs of organ dysfunction (e.g., proteinuria, liver abnormalities, or neurological symptoms). Since this patient is only 16 weeks pregnant and does not show other preeclampsia symptoms, this diagnosis is incorrect.

D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, also known as gestational hypertension, develops after 20 weeks gestation in women with previously normal blood pressure. Because this patient has a prior history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension, not pregnancy-induced hypertension.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. Cervical changes, including effacement and dilation, are the most definitive signs of preterm labor. Uterine contractions alone do not confirm preterm labor unless they result in cervical dilation, indicating that labor is progressing.

B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes. Irregular contractions, known as Braxton Hicks contractions, can be common in pregnancy and do not necessarily indicate preterm labor. True preterm labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes.

C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. The absence of estriol in maternal saliva does not confirm or rule out preterm labor. Salivary estriol testing is not a widely used or reliable diagnostic tool for determining the onset of preterm labor.

D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretion. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein found in vaginal secretions between 22-34 weeks of pregnancy and can indicate a risk of preterm labor, but its presence alone does not confirm that labor is actively occurring. A positive fFN test means the patient may be at increased risk for preterm labor, but cervical changes remain the best indicator of actual labor.

A. 2+ Deep Tendon Reflexes. B. Platelets of 20,000 C. Urine output of 75 ml per hour. D. 1+ proteinuria.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 2+ Deep Tendon Reflexes. A 2+ deep tendon reflex is considered normal and does not indicate worsening preeclampsia. Severe preeclampsia is often associated with hyperreflexia, typically 3+ or 4+, which can signal worsening central nervous system involvement and an increased risk for seizures.

B. Platelets of 20,000. A platelet count of 20,000 is dangerously low and suggests the development of HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that includes hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding and requires immediate medical intervention.

C. Urine output of 75 ml per hour. A urine output of 75 mL per hour is adequate and does not indicate worsening kidney function. In severe preeclampsia, oliguria (urine output less than 30 mL per hour) is a more concerning sign, as it suggests impaired renal perfusion and possible acute kidney injury.

D. 1+ Proteinuria. While proteinuria is a key feature of preeclampsia, a 1+ reading is mild and not necessarily indicative of worsening disease. Severe preeclampsia is typically associated with proteinuria of 3+ or higher, along with other symptoms such as hypertension, headache, and visual disturbances.

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A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding is most indicative that preterm labor is occurring?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a patient who has severe preeclampsia. The assessment finding that should be reported to the physician is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A woman with a history of congestive heart disease is 36 weeks pregnant. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the primary health care practitioner?

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The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states…., and finds that her cervix has dilated and effaced on examination.

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A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has

After delivering a healthy baby boy with epidural anesthesia, a woman on the after-birth unit complains of a severe headache. The nurse should anticipate which actions in the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)