A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has

Chronic Hypertension

This is a normal Blood Pressure

Preeclampsia

Pregnancy induced hypertension.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Chronic Hypertension. Chronic hypertension is diagnosed when a woman has hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) that was present before pregnancy or develops before 20 weeks gestation. Since this patient has a history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension rather than pregnancy-related hypertension.

B. This is a normal Blood Pressure. A blood pressure of 169/94 mmHg is not normal. This reading indicates hypertension, which requires monitoring and possible medication adjustments to prevent complications such as preeclampsia or fetal growth restriction.

C. Preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and includes hypertension along with signs of organ dysfunction (e.g., proteinuria, liver abnormalities, or neurological symptoms). Since this patient is only 16 weeks pregnant and does not show other preeclampsia symptoms, this diagnosis is incorrect.

D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, also known as gestational hypertension, develops after 20 weeks gestation in women with previously normal blood pressure. Because this patient has a prior history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension, not pregnancy-induced hypertension.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Apply oxygen. While oxygen may be administered if fetal distress is present, it does not directly resolve shoulder dystocia, which is a mechanical issue requiring immediate positional maneuvers to free the impacted shoulder.

B. Increase IV Pitocin. Increasing oxytocin (Pitocin) is contraindicated in shoulder dystocia because it can cause stronger contractions, worsening the impaction and increasing the risk of fetal injury or uterine rupture.

C. Apply downward pressure on the woman's fundus. Fundal pressure should never be applied in shoulder dystocia, as it can further wedge the fetal shoulder against the pubic bone, increasing the risk of brachial plexus injury and fetal distress.

D. Flex the woman's thighs sharply toward her abdomen. The McRoberts maneuver, which involves sharply flexing the mother’s thighs to widen the pelvic outlet, is the first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia. This maneuver helps rotate the pelvis and reposition the fetal shoulder, increasing the chances of a successful vaginal delivery.

A. Tell the client to take a warm shower, rest, and call back tomorrow. B. Schedule an appointment for the client at the clinic tomorrow. C. Instruct the client to drink cranberry juice and call if she experiences a fever. D. Instruct the client to go to labor triage at the hospital for evaluation.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Tell the client to take a warm shower, rest, and call back tomorrow. While rest and hydration can sometimes help with mild discomfort, this client’s symptoms—pelvic pressure, low back pain, abdominal pain, and increased vaginal discharge—are concerning for preterm labor and require immediate evaluation. Delaying care could increase the risk of preterm birth.

B. Schedule an appointment for the client at the clinic tomorrow. Waiting until the next day is not appropriate, as preterm labor is an urgent condition that needs immediate assessment to prevent premature birth. Prompt intervention may allow for tocolytic therapy or steroid administration to improve fetal lung maturity if preterm birth is imminent.

C. Instruct the client to drink cranberry juice and call if she experiences a fever. Cranberry juice is sometimes used to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs), but this client’s symptoms are more indicative of preterm labor rather than an infection. Fever is not a defining symptom of preterm labor, and delaying care could result in complications.

D. Instruct the client to go to labor triage at the hospital for evaluation. This is the best response because the symptoms suggest possible preterm labor. Evaluation in the hospital can include cervical checks, fetal monitoring, and tests such as fetal fibronectin (fFN) to assess the risk of preterm birth. Immediate intervention can help delay labor and improve neonatal outcomes.

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A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During a vaginal delivery the midwife tells you that a shoulder dystocia has occurred. Which of the following initial nursing actions is appropriate at this time?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who is 32 weeks pregnant calls the clinic complaining of an increase in vaginal discharge, pelvic pressure, and low back and abdominal pain. Based on this information, what action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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