An emergency shoulder dystocia delivery occurred that requires the nurse to apply suprapubic pressure. What is the rationale for this action?
To prevent uterine atony
To facilitate the delivery of the baby's head.
To facilitate the delivery of the baby's shoulders
To prepare for the third stage of labor.
The Correct Answer is C
A. To prevent uterine atony. Suprapubic pressure is not used to prevent uterine atony. Uterine atony, which leads to postpartum hemorrhage, is managed through uterine massage and medications such as oxytocin.
B. To facilitate the delivery of the baby's head. The baby's head has already been delivered in shoulder dystocia. The emergency arises because the shoulders are stuck behind the pubic bone, requiring specific maneuvers to release them.
C. To facilitate the delivery of the baby's shoulders. Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic bone, preventing delivery. Suprapubic pressure is applied to help dislodge the shoulder by compressing it downward, allowing it to pass under the pubic bone. This maneuver, along with the McRoberts position, is commonly used to resolve the dystocia.
D. To prepare for the third stage of labor. The third stage of labor refers to the delivery of the placenta, which occurs after the baby is born. Suprapubic pressure is specifically used to assist in the second stage of labor when shoulder dystocia occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.
B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.
C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.
D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolism) can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but correcting coagulation abnormalities is not the immediate priority. The first intervention should focus on oxygenation and stabilizing the cardiovascular system.
B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. While emotional support is important, this is not the priority in a life-threatening emergency. The focus should be on immediate resuscitation efforts to prevent maternal and fetal death.
C. Maintain cardiac output and assess intake & output. Maintaining cardiac output is critical, but this is secondary to oxygenation. The initial response should be administering high-flow oxygen to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation before managing hemodynamic stability.
D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask 8-10L/min. Amniotic fluid embolism causes sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and cardiovascular collapse. Immediate high-flow oxygen delivery is the first and most critical intervention to improve oxygenation, support cardiac function, and prevent further complications.
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