A woman is receiving magnesium sulfate as part of her treatment for severe preeclampsia. The nurse is monitoring the woman's serum magnesium levels. The nurse determines that the drug is at a therapeutic level based on which result?
8.4 mEq/L
6.1 mEq/L
10.8 mEq/L
3.3 mEq/L
The Correct Answer is B
A. 8.4 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range and may indicate magnesium toxicity. Levels greater than 7.5–8 mEq/L can lead to loss of deep tendon reflexes, and higher levels can cause respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
B. 6.1 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate when used to treat severe preeclampsia, which is generally 4.8–8.4 mEq/L (or 4–7 mEq/L depending on the source and unit of measurement). This level is considered safe and effective for preventing seizures.
C. 10.8 mEq/L is too high and indicates magnesium toxicity, placing the patient at risk for serious complications like respiratory or cardiac arrest.
D. 3.3 mEq/L is below the therapeutic range, suggesting that the dose may be inadequate to prevent eclamptic seizures in a woman with severe preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Convection is the loss of heat due to air or fluid movement around the body. While keeping the newborn warm in a draft-free area can help with this, the blanket on the scale primarily addresses heat loss through contact with the cold surface.
B. Conduction occurs when heat is transferred from the baby’s body to a cooler surface that it comes into direct contact with, like the cold scale. By placing a warmed blanket on the scale, the nurse minimizes heat loss due to conduction, ensuring the baby stays warm.
C. Radiation involves heat transfer to cooler objects nearby, but a warmed blanket on the scale does not directly address heat loss through radiation.
D. Evaporation occurs when moisture on the skin evaporates, taking heat away. A warmed blanket would not primarily address evaporation; it’s meant to prevent conduction heat loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive amount of amniotic fluid and typically presents with maternal discomfort, dyspnea, and possibly preterm labor, but not with vaginal bleeding as a primary symptom.
B. Placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis based on the assessment findings. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, a soft, nontender uterus, no contractions, and a normal fetal heart rate. The bleeding may start spontaneously and often recurs. This fits the client's clinical picture precisely.
C. Placental abruption usually involves painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and may be associated with uterine contractions or abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. The absence of pain and uterine tenderness in this case makes placental abruption less likely.
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy would not be expected at 33 weeks’ gestation. Ectopic pregnancies typically present in the first trimester and are accompanied by severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock if ruptured.
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