The nurse knows that the occurrence of shoulder dystocia during labor is most likely related to which of the following?

Advance maternal age

Polyhydramnios

Macrosomia

Preterm birth

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Advanced maternal age may increase the risk of certain pregnancy complications, but it is not specifically associated with shoulder dystocia. Other factors, such as fetal size, are more directly related to shoulder dystocia.

B. Polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) can sometimes be associated with complications during labor, but it is not the primary risk factor for shoulder dystocia. The condition most often involves difficulties with the fetal position or size rather than the amount of fluid.

C. Macrosomia (a large baby, typically defined as a birth weight over 8 pounds 13 ounces or 4000g) is the primary risk factor for shoulder dystocia. Shoulder dystocia occurs when the baby’s shoulders become stuck during delivery, often due to the larger size of the baby. The baby’s shoulders may be too broad to pass through the birth canal easily, which increases the likelihood of this complication.

D. Preterm birth is not a significant risk factor for shoulder dystocia. Preterm babies are typically smaller and less likely to encounter the same birth canal obstruction issues associated with shoulder dystocia.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Lochia is the normal postpartum vaginal discharge of blood and tissue, and its duration or volume is not affected by Kegel exercises.
B. Uterine involution ,the shrinking of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy size ,is a natural physiological process and is not influenced by Kegel exercises.
C. Kegel exercises specifically target the pelvic floor muscles, which may be weakened during pregnancy and childbirth. These exercises help strengthen the muscles, support pelvic organs, and prevent issues such as urinary incontinence.
D. While improved muscle tone may eventually support healing, these exercises are not a direct method for pain relief.

A. Request the client to empty her bladder B. Follow PRN order to insert a straight urinary catheterization C. Start an IV and add 20 units Pitocin D. Massage fundus until it descends below the level on umbilicus.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Request the client to empty her bladder is the correct action. A fundus that is firm but deviated to the left and higher than expected (U+1) suggests that the bladder is full. A full bladder can displace the uterus, causing it to become misaligned and elevated. Asking the client to empty her bladder is often the first step to address this situation before proceeding with further assessment or intervention.

B. Follow PRN order to insert a straight urinary catheterization might be appropriate if the client is unable to empty her bladder voluntarily, but it is typically a last resort. Before resorting to catheterization, encourage the client to try to void first.

C. Start an IV and add 20 units Pitocin would be indicated if there were signs of uterine atony or hemorrhage. However, in this case, the issue seems related to bladder distention rather than uterine atony, so starting Pitocin is not the appropriate immediate response.

D. Massage fundus until it descends below the level of the umbilicus would be done if the fundus were boggy or soft, indicating uterine atony. However, in this case, the fundus is described as firm, so massaging is not necessary. The priority is addressing the bladder distention.

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The nurse knows that the occurrence of shoulder dystocia during labor is most likely related to which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client how to do muscle-clenching (Kegel) exercises for the perineum. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to do these exercises?" Which reason would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

During a routine postpartum assessment following a normal vaginal delivery, the nurse notes the fundus is firm, but the level has changed from U-1 to U+1 and deviated to the left. Which action would be appropriate before continuing the assessment?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is conducting an assessment of a woman who has experienced PROM. Which amniotic fluid finding would lead the nurse to suspect infection as the cause of a client's PROM?

The nurse encourages the mother of a healthy newborn to put the newborn to the breast immediately after birth for which reason?

The nurse knows that the occurrence of shoulder dystocia during labor is most likely related to which of the following?

A woman with placenta previa is being treated with expectant management. The woman and fetus are stable. The nurse is assessing the woman for possible discharge home. Which statement by the woman would suggest to the nurse that home care might be inappropriate?

An ultrasound is performed on a client at term who is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound indicate that an abruptio placenta is present. Based on this finding, what would be the next action?

A nurse suspects that a pregnant client may be experiencing a placental abruption based on assessment of which finding? Select all that apply.

The nurse dries the neonate thoroughly and promptly changes wet linens. The nurse does so to minimize heat loss via which mechanism?

A woman is receiving magnesium sulfate as part of her treatment for severe preeclampsia. The nurse is monitoring the woman's serum magnesium levels. The nurse determines that the drug is at a therapeutic level based on which result?