A young adult client is brought to the emergency department reporting a headache. The client has bruises around the face and on the upper arms. The nurse suspects the client is the victim of physical abuse. In which order should the nurse implement these interventions? (Arrange the nursing actions with the highest priority first, on top, and lowest priority last, on bottom.)
Provide a safety plan to prevent further violence.
Inspect head for trauma.
Evaluate range of motion of all joints.
Perform a neurological exam.
The Correct Answer is B,D,C,A
- Inspect head for trauma. Head injuries can be life-threatening, so the nurse must first assess for signs of skull fractures, concussions, or intracranial bleeding that could explain the headache.
- Perform a neurological exam. If head trauma is suspected, a neurological exam is essential to assess for altered mental status, coordination deficits, or signs of increased intracranial pressure.
- Evaluate range of motion of all joints. After ruling out life-threatening conditions, the nurse should assess for musculoskeletal injuries, fractures, or soft tissue damage from physical abuse.
- Provide a safety plan to prevent further violence. Once the client is medically stable, the nurse should provide resources, assess risk for further harm, and develop a safety plan to prevent future abuse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A 40-year-old client who smoked cigarettes as a teen. While smoking is a known risk factor for several cancers, a brief history of smoking in adolescence does not pose as high a risk as a strong family history of breast cancer. Long-term smoking exposure is more strongly linked to lung and other cancers.
B. A 50-year-old woman with a maternal history of breast cancer. A family history of breast cancer, especially in a first-degree relative (mother, sister, or daughter), significantly increases the risk of developing breast cancer. This client may also carry genetic mutations such as BRCA1 or BRCA2, further elevating the risk.
C. A woman who had a total hysterectomy 5 years ago for a grade 4 Pap smear. A grade 4 Pap smear indicates severe cervical dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, but a total hysterectomy removes the uterus and cervix, significantly reducing the risk of cervical cancer recurrence.
D. A man with no tumor marker elevation 3 years after prostate cancer treatment. This client is in remission with no current signs of active cancer. While prostate cancer survivors require monitoring, his risk is lower compared to someone with an active familial predisposition to cancer.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Cell division occurs with the replication of parent cell's DNA distributed to daughter cells with duplicated chromosomes. This describes normal cell division (mitosis), not cancerous growth. In healthy cells, division is controlled, and errors are corrected by regulatory mechanisms.
B. Cells proliferate until a finite cell density is reached, which is determined by the availability of growth factors. Normal cells exhibit contact inhibition, meaning they stop dividing when they reach a certain density. Cancer cells ignore these regulatory signals and continue to grow uncontrollably.
C. Abnormal cell growth that remains confined to its original location, without invading surrounding tissue or spreading. This describes benign tumors, which do not spread. Cancerous (malignant) tumors, however, invade nearby tissues and can metastasize to distant organs.
D. Alteration of cellular genetics proliferates a mutated cell that progresses to surrounding and distant tissues. Cancer begins with genetic mutations that cause uncontrolled cell proliferation. As cancer progresses, cells invade surrounding tissues and may spread (metastasize) to distant sites via the blood and lymphatic systems. This is the defining characteristic of malignancy.
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