After reviewing the history of a group of clients, which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cancer?
A 40-year-old client who smoked cigarettes as a teen.
A 50-year-old woman with a maternal history of breast cancer.
A woman who had a total hysterectomy 5 years ago for a grade 4 Pap smear.
A man with no tumor marker elevation 3 years after prostate cancer treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A 40-year-old client who smoked cigarettes as a teen. While smoking is a known risk factor for several cancers, a brief history of smoking in adolescence does not pose as high a risk as a strong family history of breast cancer. Long-term smoking exposure is more strongly linked to lung and other cancers.
B. A 50-year-old woman with a maternal history of breast cancer. A family history of breast cancer, especially in a first-degree relative (mother, sister, or daughter), significantly increases the risk of developing breast cancer. This client may also carry genetic mutations such as BRCA1 or BRCA2, further elevating the risk.
C. A woman who had a total hysterectomy 5 years ago for a grade 4 Pap smear. A grade 4 Pap smear indicates severe cervical dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, but a total hysterectomy removes the uterus and cervix, significantly reducing the risk of cervical cancer recurrence.
D. A man with no tumor marker elevation 3 years after prostate cancer treatment. This client is in remission with no current signs of active cancer. While prostate cancer survivors require monitoring, his risk is lower compared to someone with an active familial predisposition to cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
The nurse recognizes that a diagnosis of cellulitis can be explained by assessment findings of red, warm, swollen lower left leg and a small coach (likely wound or abrasion) above the affected area.
Rationale:
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that presents with localized redness, warmth, swelling, and pain.
Red, warm, swollen lower left leg indicates inflammation and infection, which are key signs of cellulitis.
A small coach (likely wound or abrasion) above the affected area suggests a potential entry point for bacteria, increasing the risk of infection.
The client's history of generalized muscle aches and not feeling well suggests systemic involvement, which is common in infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Increase in monocytes and macrophages. Monocytes and macrophages are key immune cells involved in the inflammatory response. Monocytes migrate to the affected tissue, where they differentiate into macrophages and help clear pathogens, dead cells, and debris. Their presence indicates an ongoing or chronic inflammatory process.
B. Predominance of megakaryocytes. Megakaryocytes are large bone marrow cells responsible for platelet production. They are not involved in inflammation and are typically found in the bone marrow, not in inflamed tissues.
C. Presence of fibroblasts and collagen. Fibroblasts and collagen are associated with tissue repair and scar formation rather than active inflammation. Their presence suggests healing and fibrosis rather than an acute inflammatory response.
D. Prevalence of dead neutrophils. Dead neutrophils are a hallmark of pus formation (suppuration) in bacterial infections but do not necessarily indicate ongoing inflammation. Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation, but their presence alone does not define an inflammatory process—the presence of active immune cells like macrophages is more indicative.
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