After receiving the change-of-shift report, which client does the nurse assess first?
A 45-year-old with a nasogastric (NG) tube who has dry oral mucosa and reports feeling very thirsty.
A 57-year-old receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg.
A 67-year-old with nausea and vomiting who reports abdominal cramps.
A 77-year-old with normal saline infusing at 150 mL/hr with an average hourly urine output.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Dry mucosa and thirst suggest dehydration, but hypotension (88/52) is more life-threatening. Low blood pressure requires immediate assessment, making this incorrect, as it’s less urgent than the nurse’s priority to address the client with critical hemodynamic instability.
Choice B reason: A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg in a client on IV diuretics indicates severe hypotension, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate assessment. This aligns with prioritization in acute care, making it the correct client for the nurse to assess first post-shift report.
Choice C reason: Nausea, vomiting, and cramps are concerning but less urgent than hypotension (88/52), which risks organ perfusion. Low blood pressure is critical, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s priority of assessing the client with unstable vitals.
Choice D reason: Normal saline at 150 mL/hr with adequate urine output is stable. Hypotension (88/52) is more critical, making this incorrect, as it’s a lower priority compared to the nurse’s need to assess the client with life-threatening low blood pressure first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Supplemental oxygen is unnecessary with a normal respiratory rate (16) and stable vitals. Maintaining the collar prevents spinal injury, making this incorrect, as it’s not indicated compared to the nurse’s priority of ensuring spinal stability in a client with a fall history.
Choice B reason: Morphine for pain is premature without confirming spinal stability, as it may mask symptoms. Keeping the collar in place is critical, making this incorrect, as it risks missing neurological changes in the nurse’s care of a potential spinal injury client.
Choice C reason: Keeping the hard collar in place until cleared by imaging prevents worsening of potential spinal injury after a trampoline fall. This aligns with trauma care protocols, making it the correct action for the nurse to take to ensure the client’s safety and stability.
Choice D reason: Methylprednisolone is used for confirmed spinal cord injury, not suspected cases without imaging. Maintaining the collar is the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s premature compared to the nurse’s focus on spinal precautions in a client with numbness and tingling.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Shortness of breath is a heart failure symptom, not a furosemide side effect, which causes diuresis. Lightheadedness from hypotension is common, making this incorrect, as it confuses disease symptoms with medication effects in the nurse’s monitoring plan for furosemide.
Choice B reason: Lightheadedness is a common furosemide adverse effect due to hypotension or electrolyte imbalances from diuresis. This aligns with pharmacological monitoring for heart failure treatment, making it the correct effect the nurse should plan to monitor in the client.
Choice C reason: Dry cough is associated with ACE inhibitors, not furosemide, a diuretic causing hypotension. Lightheadedness is a furosemide effect, making this incorrect, as it misattributes a side effect to the wrong medication in the nurse’s monitoring for heart failure treatment.
Choice D reason: Bitter taste is not a typical furosemide side effect; it’s more linked to medications like antibiotics. Lightheadedness is relevant, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the expected adverse effects the nurse should monitor with furosemide administration.
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