An adult client comes to the clinic and reports concern over a lump that, "Just popped up on my neck about a week ago." While performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. Which of these findings suggest?
Lymphangitis.
Malignancy.
Viral Infection.
Bacterial Infection.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Lymphangitis is characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and is often associated with red streaks and tenderness. The absence of inflammation and tenderness suggests a different etiology.
B. Malignancy is suggested by the presence of a large, nontender, hardened lymph node. These characteristics are commonly associated with metastatic spread of cancer to the lymph nodes. Further diagnostic testing, such as biopsy, would be warranted to confirm malignancy.
C. Viral infection may cause lymphadenopathy, but typically, the lymph nodes are tender and may be enlarged but not necessarily hardened. The absence of tenderness and the hardened consistency of the lymph node suggest a different etiology.
D. Bacterial infection can cause lymphadenopathy, which may be tender and enlarged, but the nontender, hardened nature of the lymph node in this case is more indicative of malignancy
rather than a bacterial infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cover client with cooling blanket.
This could help manage the fever but is not the highest priority in the context of acute adrenal crisis.
B. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
Pain management is important, but it is not the immediate priority in a life-threatening adrenal crisis.
C. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
This is the correct answer because the client is experiencing hypotension (low blood pressure), which is critical in an acute adrenal crisis. IV fluids are essential to restore blood pressure and perfusion.
D. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
Managing the fever is important, but not the first priority. The client’s hemodynamic instability needs to be addressed immediately.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack. This schedule does not ensure that the medication is administered at equally spaced intervals throughout the day, as required for 4 divided doses.
B. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400. This schedule is not practical or feasible, as it includes a dose in the middle of the night.
C. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. This schedule provides equally divided doses at intervals that are practical and coincide with the client's waking hours.
D. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours. While this option mentions administering doses during waking hours, it does not specify specific times for administration, unlike option C.
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