An adult client comes to the clinic and reports concern over a lump that, "Just popped up on my neck about a week ago." While performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. Which of these findings suggest?
Lymphangitis.
Malignancy.
Viral Infection.
Bacterial Infection.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Lymphangitis is characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and is often associated with red streaks and tenderness. The absence of inflammation and tenderness suggests a different etiology.
B. Malignancy is suggested by the presence of a large, nontender, hardened lymph node. These characteristics are commonly associated with metastatic spread of cancer to the lymph nodes. Further diagnostic testing, such as biopsy, would be warranted to confirm malignancy.
C. Viral infection may cause lymphadenopathy, but typically, the lymph nodes are tender and may be enlarged but not necessarily hardened. The absence of tenderness and the hardened consistency of the lymph node suggest a different etiology.
D. Bacterial infection can cause lymphadenopathy, which may be tender and enlarged, but the nontender, hardened nature of the lymph node in this case is more indicative of malignancy
rather than a bacterial infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not directly neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach. Instead, they reduce acid secretion by blocking the histamine 2 receptors on parietal cells, thereby decreasing the production of gastric acid.
B. This describes the mechanism of action of anticholinergic medications, not histamine 2- receptor antagonists.
C. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not have antimicrobial properties and are not used to destroy microorganisms causing stomach inflammation. They primarily target acid secretion.
D. This is the correct purpose of histamine 2-receptor antagonists. They work by blocking the action of histamine on parietal cells in the stomach, leading to a reduction in the secretion of hydrochloric acid. This helps in the management of peptic ulcer disease and other conditions related to excessive gastric acid secretion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Digoxin.
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that helps increase the force of myocardial contraction and is generally used to treat heart failure. It does not typically pose a significant risk for cardiogenic shock.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention in heart failure. It can cause electrolyte imbalances but is not directly linked to causing cardiogenic shock.
C. Nadolol.
Nadolol is a beta-blocker, which can reduce the heart rate and the strength of heart contractions. In a client with severe heart failure, excessive beta-blockade can lead to a significant decrease in cardiac output, increasing the risk for cardiogenic shock.
D. Captopril.
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps manage heart failure by reducing afterload and preload.
While it can cause hypotension, it is not typically associated with a direct risk of cardiogenic shock.
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