An adult client is admitted via the emergency department (ED) with a head injury that will initially require intensive care. Which nurse should be responsible for coordinating the progression of this client's care through rehabilitation and discharge?

Risk management nurse.

Neurology unit supervisor.

Nurse case manager.

Adult nurse practitioner.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: The risk management nurse is not typically responsible for coordinating patient care through rehabilitation and discharge.

Choice B rationale: The neurology unit supervisor may have expertise in neurology care but may not be directly involved in coordinating care through rehabilitation and discharge.

Choice C rationale: The nurse case manager is specifically trained to coordinate and manage the care of patients through the entire healthcare continuum, including rehabilitation and discharge.

Choice D rationale: While the adult nurse practitioner may be involved in the patient's care, the nurse case manager is spec

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Sexual activity should be avoided until the client and all sexual partners have completed treatment and are symptom-free. This is to prevent reinfection and transmission of the STI.

Choice B rationale: Persons with STIs are not reported to local health departments unless they have a reportable disease such as syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia or HIV. Trichomoniasis is not a reportable disease in most jurisdictions.

Choice C rationale: Most contraceptives do not protect against infection. The only contraceptive method that provides some protection against STIs is the male or female condom.

Choice D rationale: The nurse should remain non-judgmental and assure the client of confidentiality. This is because the nurse has a professional and ethical obligation to respect the client's autonomy, privacy and dignity.

A. Wait until 0830 and administer the aspirin. B. Obtain a prescription for a PRN analgesic. C. Assess the client's prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ration (INR). D. Administer the prescribed daily aspirin now.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Waiting until 0830 and administering the aspirin would not address the client's immediate need for pain relief.

Choice B rationale: Obtaining a prescription for a PRN analgesic is the most appropriate action to provide the client with effective pain relief.

Choice C rationale: Assessing the client's prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) is not necessary in this context and does not address the immediate pain concern.

Choice D rationale: Administering the prescribed daily aspirin now would not address the client’s lower back pain at the moment.

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An adult client is admitted via the emergency department (ED) with a head injury that will initially require intensive care. Which nurse should be responsible for coordinating the progression of this client's care through rehabilitation and discharge?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client at the clinic who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) trichomoniasis. The client reports having sex with multiple partners. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Aspirin 81 mg at 0900 daily is prescribed for an adult client. At 0800 the client asks for something for low back pain, but does not have any PRN analgesics prescribed. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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