An adult client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus asks a nurse to explain how he developed the condition. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Your body will continue producing too much insulin without medicine to counteract it.
Your body doesn’t process glucose well.
Your body’s hemoglobin is not binding to the sugar you consume.
Your body’s immune system has destroyed cells in your pancreas.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, not the overproduction of insulin. Over time, the pancreas may produce less insulin, but the primary issue is the body’s inability to use insulin effectively.
Choice B rationale
Type 2 diabetes involves the body’s inability to process glucose properly due to insulin resistance. This leads to elevated blood glucose levels and various complications if not managed effectively.
Choice C rationale
Hemoglobin binding to sugar is related to the measurement of HbA1c, which reflects average blood glucose levels over time. It is not a cause of type 2 diabetes.
Choice D rationale
The destruction of pancreatic cells is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes, an autoimmune condition. Type 2 diabetes is primarily due to insulin resistance and is not caused by an autoimmune response.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 2-hour blood glucose level of 132 mg/dL is below the threshold for diabetes diagnosis, which is 200 mg/dL or higher.
Choice B rationale
An HbA1c level of 5.2% is within the normal range. Diabetes is diagnosed with an HbA1c of 6.5% or higher.
Choice C rationale
A casual blood glucose level of 178 mg/dL is elevated but not diagnostic of diabetes. Diabetes is diagnosed with a casual blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL or higher.
Choice D rationale
A fasting blood glucose level of 155 mg/dL is above the threshold for diabetes diagnosis, which is 126 mg/dL or higher. This indicates that the client is at risk for diabetes mellitus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Oseltamivir is incorrect. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza. It is not indicated for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
Choice B rationale
Silodosin is correct. Silodosin is an alpha-blocker used to treat the symptoms of BPH. It works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to urinate.
Choice C rationale
Ceftriaxone is incorrect. Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.
Choice D rationale
Doxepin is incorrect. Doxepin is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat depression and anxiety. It is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.
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