An adult client was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. The client's spouse approaches the nurse and asks how to know that the spouse's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when the client dies. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Explain the client will start to lose consciousness and the body systems will slow down.
Offer to discuss the client's health status with each of the adult children.
Gather information regarding how long it will take for the children to arrive.
Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will notify when to call the children.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Explaining the physiological signs of imminent death helps prepare the spouse and family for what to expect, allowing them to gather as needed.
B. While discussing the client’s health status may be supportive, it does not directly address the spouse’s request for understanding signs of impending death.
C. Gathering information about how long it will take for the children to arrive is important but secondary to providing the spouse with information about impending signs of death.
D. While reassuring the spouse is important, it may not provide the immediate information they seek about recognizing the signs of dying.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Instructing the client to increase protein intake is inappropriate, as jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction, which can affect protein metabolism.
B. Preparing the client for repeat blood cultures may be necessary if there is suspicion of an infection, but the priority is to assess the liver's function first due to the presence of jaundice. C. Arranging emergency transport to an inpatient facility is not immediately necessary unless the client shows signs of severe distress or complications. Evaluation of liver function is a more prudent first step.
D. Explaining the need to evaluate liver function is critical because jaundice indicates a potential liver issue that needs immediate assessment. This evaluation will guide further treatment and management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli indicates a potential neurological issue but does not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding associated with eptifibatide use.
B. Hematemesis indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a significant concern in patients on eptifibatide, as it increases the risk of serious bleeding complications.
C. Blood in urine (hematuria) can indicate a urinary tract issue or bleeding but is less critical than gastrointestinal bleeding in this context.
D. A blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg may indicate some degree of hypotension but is not as urgent as identifying active bleeding.
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