An older client who is experiencing urinary incontinence is brought to the clinic with increased confusion. The nurse observes serous drainage from a laceration on the client's left arm. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Urinary output for past six hours.

24-hour medication history.

Amount of serous drainage from the wound.

White blood cell count.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Urinary output is important but not as critical as identifying the potential source of infection.
B. A 24-hour medication history is useful but secondary to identifying an acute infection.
C. The amount of serous drainage provides information on wound healing but does not confirm infection.
D. Increased confusion in an older adult, especially with a wound present, raises concern for infection, possibly sepsis. A WBC count can help identify infection and guide further treatment.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Lubricating lotion may be helpful for dry skin but is not necessary for these lesions.
B. A biopsy is not typically required for benign lesions such as senile lentigines, unless there is suspicion of malignancy.
C. Recent international travel is unrelated to the development of senile lentigines.
D. Senile lentigines, also known as "liver spots" or "age spots," are common in older adults. They are benign lesions that result from sun exposure and aging. Recording their presence is appropriate for documentation, as they are generally not harmful.

A. Obtain a prescription for regular insulin SUBQ per sliding scale. B. Record the blood glucose results and requisition a repeat test in one hour. C. Prepare to initiate a continuous IV infusion of Insulin in normal saline. D. Administer the client's daily metformin tablet with a sip of water.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Administering insulin per sliding scale is appropriate for managing elevated blood glucose in a patient who is NPO and cannot take oral hypoglycemics like metformin.

B. Repeating the test in one hour delays necessary treatment and does not address the current hyperglycemia.

C. A continuous IV infusion of insulin is more appropriate for severe hyperglycemia or critical care situations, but obtaining a sliding scale prescription is more routine in this context.

D. Administering metformin with a sip of water could be considered if the provider orders it, but typically, oral hypoglycemics are held when a patient is NPO.

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An older client who is experiencing urinary incontinence is brought to the clinic with increased confusion. The nurse observes serous drainage from a laceration on the client's left arm. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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